When administering an antipsychotic medication to a client diagnosed with schizophrenia, which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.
Monitoring the client for neuroleptic malignant syndrome for up to 2 months after initiating the drug.
Encouraging the client to report signs of diabetes, such as increased thirst, hunger, and urination.
Advising the client to report weight gain and skin rashes to the health care provider immediately.
Using the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) to assess for neurologic adverse effects.
Administering the medication subcutaneously when the client is unable to swallow effectively.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
A. Monitoring the client for neuroleptic malignant syndrome for up to 2 months after initiating the drug. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but serious adverse effect of antipsychotic medications. Monitoring for NMS, especially during the first few months of treatment, is crucial.
B. Encouraging the client to report signs of diabetes, such as increased thirst, hunger, and urination. Some antipsychotics, particularly second-generation antipsychotics, are associated with an increased risk of metabolic syndrome, including diabetes. Clients should be educated to report symptoms suggestive of hyperglycemia.
C. Advising the client to report weight gain and skin rashes to the health care provider immediately. Weight gain is a common side effect, particularly with second-generation antipsychotics. Skin rashes could indicate an allergic reaction, including serious conditions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, requiring immediate medical attention.
D. Using the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) to assess for neurologic adverse effects. The AIMS scale is used to assess for tardive dyskinesia and other extrapyramidal symptoms, which are potential adverse effects of antipsychotic medications.
E. Administering the medication subcutaneously when the client is unable to swallow effectively. Antipsychotic medications are generally not administered subcutaneously. If a client cannot swallow, an alternative route such as intramuscular injection or an orally disintegrating tablet might be used.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Her family will no longer be dysfunctional." Completing a treatment program does not guarantee that family dynamics will change or improve immediately. Family dysfunction is often deeply rooted and requires separate or concurrent therapy.
B. "She'll need ongoing support to remain abstinent." Recovery from alcoholism is an ongoing process, and continued support, whether through therapy, support groups, or counseling, is critical to maintaining abstinence and preventing relapse.
C. "She doesn't need to be concerned about abusing alcohol in the future." This statement is inaccurate because individuals recovering from alcoholism must remain vigilant to prevent relapse. Alcoholism is a chronic condition, and the risk of relapse remains.
D. "She can learn to consume alcohol without problems." This is incorrect, as individuals who have struggled with alcoholism typically need to abstain completely from alcohol to prevent relapse.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Generalized pain: Generalized pain is not a typical early sign of deterioration following a hemorrhagic stroke.
B. Alteration in level of consciousness (LOC): An alteration in LOC is often the earliest and most sensitive sign of neurological deterioration in clients who have had a hemorrhagic stroke. This can indicate increased intracranial pressure or further bleeding.
C. Tonic-clonic seizures: While seizures can occur after a stroke, they are not typically the earliest sign of deterioration. Changes in LOC usually precede seizure activity.
D. Shortness of breath: Shortness of breath may indicate respiratory issues but is not directly related to early neurological deterioration following a stroke.
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