When administering an antipsychotic medication to a client diagnosed with schizophrenia, which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.
Monitoring the client for neuroleptic malignant syndrome for up to 2 months after initiating the drug.
Encouraging the client to report signs of diabetes, such as increased thirst, hunger, and urination.
Advising the client to report weight gain and skin rashes to the health care provider immediately.
Using the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) to assess for neurologic adverse effects.
Administering the medication subcutaneously when the client is unable to swallow effectively.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
A. Monitoring the client for neuroleptic malignant syndrome for up to 2 months after initiating the drug. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but serious adverse effect of antipsychotic medications. Monitoring for NMS, especially during the first few months of treatment, is crucial.
B. Encouraging the client to report signs of diabetes, such as increased thirst, hunger, and urination. Some antipsychotics, particularly second-generation antipsychotics, are associated with an increased risk of metabolic syndrome, including diabetes. Clients should be educated to report symptoms suggestive of hyperglycemia.
C. Advising the client to report weight gain and skin rashes to the health care provider immediately. Weight gain is a common side effect, particularly with second-generation antipsychotics. Skin rashes could indicate an allergic reaction, including serious conditions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, requiring immediate medical attention.
D. Using the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) to assess for neurologic adverse effects. The AIMS scale is used to assess for tardive dyskinesia and other extrapyramidal symptoms, which are potential adverse effects of antipsychotic medications.
E. Administering the medication subcutaneously when the client is unable to swallow effectively. Antipsychotic medications are generally not administered subcutaneously. If a client cannot swallow, an alternative route such as intramuscular injection or an orally disintegrating tablet might be used.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "My condition is a degenerative brain disorder caused by nutrient deficiency." Wernicke encephalopathy is caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, which is often due to chronic alcoholism. The condition is associated with neurological damage from this nutrient deficiency, making this statement accurate.
B. "There is swelling of my brain that is caused by alcohol consumption." Wernicke encephalopathy is not characterized by brain swelling but by neurological damage due to thiamine deficiency.
C. "The inability of my liver to metabolize the alcohol caused this condition." While liver dysfunction can be associated with alcohol use, Wernicke encephalopathy is specifically due to thiamine deficiency, not liver metabolism issues.
D. "Toxins from the alcohol I drank have caused my brain to swell." This statement is incorrect as Wernicke encephalopathy is related to thiamine deficiency rather than brain swelling from alcohol toxins.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Emaciation: Emaciation refers to extreme weight loss and muscle wasting due to severe malnutrition, not just loss of appetite.
B. Cachexia: Cachexia is a complex syndrome associated with chronic illness, characterized by severe weight loss, muscle atrophy, and fatigue. While it may include loss of appetite, it’s not the best term for simple loss of appetite.
C. Anorexia: Anorexia is the correct medical term for loss of appetite. It can be related to various conditions, including prolonged illness.
D. Nausea: Nausea is a sensation of discomfort in the stomach with an urge to vomit, not loss of appetite.
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