As a nurse approaches the nurses' station, a client diagnosed with a delusional disorder raises his voice and says, "You're following me. What do you want?" To prevent escalating fear and anger, the nurse takes a nonthreatening posture and makes which response in a calm voice?
"Are you frightened?"
"You know I'm not following you."
"You'll have to go into seclusion if you continue to threaten me."
"I'm sorry if I frightened you. I was returning to the nurses' station after going out for lunch."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "Are you frightened?" This response is empathetic but may inadvertently reinforce the client's delusional thinking by focusing on the fear rather than addressing the delusion.
B. "You know I'm not following you." This response directly challenges the client's delusion, which could provoke defensiveness and escalate the situation.
C. "You'll have to go into seclusion if you continue to threaten me." This response is confrontational and may escalate the situation further by implying a threat, which could increase the client's fear and anger.
D. "I'm sorry if I frightened you. I was returning to the nurses' station after going out for lunch." This response acknowledges the client's feelings without reinforcing the delusion and provides a simple, non-threatening explanation for the nurse's actions. It helps de-escalate the situation by maintaining a calm, non-confrontational tone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hematologic spread: Hematologic spread (through the bloodstream) is a common mechanism for metastasis to distant organs like bones and liver. This is the most likely mechanism for the spread described.
B. Lymphatic circulation: Lymphatic spread often leads to regional lymph nodes rather than distant organs like bones and liver.
C. Invasion: Invasion involves local spread into adjacent tissues but does not typically account for distant metastasis.
D. Angiogenesis: Angiogenesis refers to the formation of new blood vessels to supply the tumor, not the mechanism by which cancer cells spread to distant sites.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A client who has recently begun treatment with propranolol (Inderal) for the treatment of social phobia. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, does not have a significant risk for dependence or withdrawal symptoms. It is primarily used for physical symptoms of anxiety, such as tachycardia.
B. A woman who has been taking lorazepam (Ativan) for several months after witnessing a traumatic motor vehicle accident. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine, which has a high potential for dependence and withdrawal, especially with long-term use. This client is the most at risk for these issues.
C. A man whose obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being treated long-term with paroxetine (Paxil). While discontinuation symptoms can occur with SSRIs like paroxetine, the risk of dependence is significantly lower than with benzodiazepines.
D. A client with generalized anxiety disorder who has responded well since beginning treatment with fluoxetine (Prozac) earlier in the year. Like paroxetine, fluoxetine is an SSRI, and while discontinuation symptoms may occur, the risk of dependence is low.
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