What maternal condition always requires delivery by cesarean section?

Partial abruptio placentae

Ectopic pregnancy

Eclampsia

Total placenta previa

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Partial abruptio placentae is not the correct answer, as it does not always require delivery by cesarean section. Partial abruptio placentae is a condition where the placenta partially separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born. This can cause bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. Depending on the severity of the condition, the gestational age, and the fetal status, the delivery may be vaginal or cesarean.

Choice B reason: Ectopic pregnancy is not the correct answer, as it does not require delivery by cesarean section. Ectopic pregnancy is a condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. This can cause bleeding, pain, and rupture of the tube. Ectopic pregnancy is not viable and needs to be removed surgically or treated with medication. It cannot result in a live birth².

Choice C reason: Eclampsia is not the correct answer, as it does not always require delivery by cesarean section. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia, a condition where the pregnant woman develops high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Eclampsia can cause seizures, coma, and death for the mother and the baby. The only cure for eclampsia is delivery of the baby, which may be vaginal or cesarean depending on the maternal and fetal condition.

Choice D reason: Total placenta previa is the correct answer, as it always requires delivery by cesarean section. Total placenta previa is a condition where the placenta completely covers the cervix, the opening of the uterus. This can cause painless bleeding, preterm labor, and fetal distress. Vaginal delivery is impossible and dangerous, as it can cause severe bleeding and damage to the placenta and the baby. Cesarean section is the only safe way to deliver the baby.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A: February 6-7 is incorrect. This is too late for the woman's fertile period, which occurs around the time of ovulation. Ovulation usually happens about 14 days before the next period starts, which would be around January 22 for a 28-day cycle¹.

Choice B:In a 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation typically occurs around day 14 (counting from the first day of the last menstrual period). Since the first day of the last period is January 8, day 14 falls on January 22. The fertile window consists of the five days leading up to ovulation and the day of ovulation (January 17–22), as sperm can survive in the reproductive tract for up to 5 days, and the egg remains viable for about 24 hours after ovulation.January 22-23 is the most fertile period, with ovulation occurring around January 22 and the egg remaining viable for fertilization on January 23.

Choice C: January 30-31 is incorrect. This is after the woman's fertile period, which ends about a day after ovulation. Ovulation usually happens about 14 days before the next period starts, which would be around January 22 for a 28-day cycle.

Choice D: January 14-15 corresponds to cycle days 7-8, which is too early for ovulation in a typical 28-day cycle. Ovulation generally occurs around day 14 (January 22). The follicular phase (the first half of the cycle) is when the follicles in the ovary mature, and estrogen levels rise to trigger ovulation. At this point (January 14-15), the egg is not yet released, and the uterus is still preparing for ovulation, making conception unlikely.

A. ceftriaxone. B. penicillin G. C. acyclovir. D. tetracycline.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria that causes gonorrhea. It is administered as a single intramuscular injection and has a high cure rate.

Choice B reason: Penicillin G is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea because of the widespread resistance of N. gonorrhoeae to this antibiotic. Penicillin G may be used in combination with other drugs for some cases of gonorrhea, but it is not the first-line treatment.

Choice C reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Acyclovir has no effect on N. gonorrhoeae and is not indicated for gonorrhea treatment.

Choice D reason: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can be used to treat some bacterial infections, but it is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea. Tetracycline has a lower efficacy and a higher rate of adverse effects than ceftriaxone for gonorrhea treatment.

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What maternal condition always requires delivery by cesarean section?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 28-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her menstrual period was January 8. The nurse correctly calculates that the woman's next fertile period is?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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