What is the priority nursing goal for a 14-year-old diagnosed with Graves’ disease?
Relieving constipation
Allowing the adolescent to make decisions about whether or not to take medication
Verbalizing the importance of monitoring for medication side effects
Developing alternative educational goals
The Correct Answer is C
Verbalizing the importance of monitoring for medication side effects.
Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism, which means the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. This can lead to symptoms such as weight loss, increased appetite, nervousness, irritability, insomnia, heat intolerance, and palpitations. The medication methimazole is used to treat Graves’ disease by blocking the synthesis of thyroid hormone. However, methimazole can also cause serious side effects such as liver damage, agranulocytosis (low white blood cell count), and allergic reactions.
Therefore, the priority nursing goal for a 14 year old diagnosed with Graves’ disease is to verbalize the importance of monitoring for medication side effects and reporting them to the health care provider.
Choice A is wrong because relieving constipation is not a priority goal for Graves’ disease. Constipation is more likely to occur in hypothyroidism, which is the opposite of hyperthyroidism.
Choice B is wrong because allowing the adolescent to make decisions about whether or not to take medication is not a priority goal for Graves’ disease. While it is important to respect the adolescent’s autonomy and involve them in their care plan, they also need to understand the risks and benefits of taking medication and the consequences of not taking it.
Choice D is wrong because developing alternative educational goals is not a priority goal for Graves’ disease. Graves’ disease can affect the academic performance of adolescents due to cognitive and emotional changes caused by hyperthyroidism.
However, this does not mean that they need to change their educational goals. They may need extra support and accommodations from their teachers and parents to cope with their condition and achieve their potential.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth indicates that the infant is having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth. The Apgar score is a scoring system that evaluates the health of newborns at 1 and 5 minutes after birth based on five criteria: appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration. Each criterion is scored from 0 to 2, and the total score ranges from 0 to 10. A score of 7 to 10 is considered reassuring, a score of 4 to 6 is moderately abnormal, and a score of 0 to 3 is concerning.
Choice A is wrong because an Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute does not mean that the infant needs no further testing. The infant should still be assessed again at 5 minutes and monitored for any signs of distress or complications.
Choice B is wrong because an Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute does not indicate an infant in severe distress who needs resuscitation. An Apgar score of 0 to 3 would indicate a concerning condition that may require immediate intervention.
Choice C is wrong because an Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute does not predict a future free of neurologic problems. The Apgar score alone cannot be considered as evidence of, or a consequence of, asphyxia or brain injury; it does not predict individual neonatal mortality or neurologic outcome; and it should not be used for that purpose.
Normal ranges for each criterion are as follows:
- Appearance (color): pink all over (2 points), body pink but extremities blue (1 point), blue, bluish-gray, or pale all over (0 points)
- Pulse (heart rate): greater than 100 beats per minute (2 points), less than 100 beats per minute (1 point), absent (0 points)
- Grimace (response to stimulation): cough or sneeze, cry and withdrawal of foot with stimulation (2 points), facial movement/grimace with stimulation (1 point), absent (0 points)
- Activity (muscle tone): active movement (2 points), limbs flexed (1 point), limp or floppy (0 points)
- Respiration (breathing): good, strong cry (2 points), irregular, weak crying (1 point), absent (0 points)
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
These are all positive signs of pregnancy, which are definitive and can only be explained by the presence of a fetus.A positive sign of pregnancy is fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife.
Choice E is wrong because a positive hCG test is a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive one.A probable sign of pregnancy is strongly suggestive of pregnancy but could have other causes.A positive hCG test could be caused by medications, tumors, or other conditions that affect the level of hCG in the blood or urine.
Some other probable signs of pregnancy are uterine enlargement, Hegar’s sign (softening of the lower uterine segment), Goodell’s sign (softening of the cervix), Chadwick’s sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix), ballottement (rebound of the fetus when tapped by the examiner’s finger), Braxton Hicks contractions (painless, irregular uterine contractions), and positive pregnancy test.
Some other positive signs of pregnancy are identification of fetal heartbeat, visualization of the fetus by ultrasound or x-ray, and verification of fetal movement by an experienced clinician.
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