What is the priority assessment for a 54 year old patient with heart failure who is receiving digoxin?
INR level
Temperature
Apical heart rate
Blood pressure
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. INR level is a measure of blood clotting time and is not directly affected by digoxin. It is more relevant for patients who are taking anticoagulants, such as warfarin.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Temperature is not a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin. It may indicate an infection or inflammation, but it is not related to the action or toxicity of digoxin.
Choice C reason: This is correct. Apical heart rate is the priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that increases the force and efficiency of the heart contractions, but also slows down the heart rate. The nurse should monitor the apical pulse for one full minute before administering digoxin and withhold the dose if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute for adults or below the age-specific normal range for children. A low or irregular pulse may indicate digoxin toxicity, which can be life-threatening.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Blood pressure is not a priority assessment for a patient receiving digoxin. Digoxin does not have a direct effect on blood pressure, although it may improve the cardiac output and reduce the fluid retention in patients with heart failure. Blood pressure should be monitored regularly, but it is not as critical as the apical heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["4.5"]
Explanation
To calculate the dose of ondansetron that the nurse should administer, we can follow these steps:
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms:
132 lb ÷ 2.2 = 60 kg
Calculate the dose of ondansetron:
0.15 mg/kg × 60 kg = 9 mg
Determine the volume of ondansetron needed using the available concentration:
9 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 4.5 mL
Rounding to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 mL of ondansetron via IV.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Diet cola PO is not an appropriate recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because diet cola does not contain any sugar and will not raise the blood glucose level. Moreover, the client is lethargic and unable to follow commands, which means they may have difficulty swallowing and may aspirate the liquid.
Choice B reason: Dextrose 50% IV is a potential recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because it can rapidly increase the blood glucose level and reverse the symptoms of hypoglycemia. However, the nurse is unable to get an IV line started on the client, which makes this option impossible.
Choice C reason: Glucagon IM is the best recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because it can stimulate the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream and raise the blood glucose level. Glucagon can be given intramuscularly or subcutaneously, which does not require an IV access. Glucagon is usually given as an emergency treatment for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow.
Choice D reason: Insulin glargine SQ is not an appropriate recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that lowers the blood glucose level. Giving insulin to a client with hypoglycemia can worsen their condition and cause coma or death. ⁹
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