The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients on an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression who refuses to participate in group.
A 17-year-old client diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is pacing around the lobby.
An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients.
A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa who is refusing to eat the evening snack.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression who refuses to participate in group does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Depression is a mood disorder that causes persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest. Refusing to participate in group may indicate low motivation, social withdrawal, or poor self-esteem, which are common symptoms of depression. The nurse should respect the client's preference and offer alternative activities or individual therapy.
Choice B reason: This client requires immediate intervention because pacing can be a sign of agitation, restlessness, or escalating mania. Clients with bipolar disorder in a manic phase may exhibit increased energy, impulsivity, irritability, and even aggression. If not addressed promptly, this behavior could escalate to disruptive outbursts, impulsive actions, or even violence toward themselves or others. The nurse should intervene by using calm communication, redirection, and possibly medication if prescribed to help de-escalate the situation and ensure safety.
Choice C reason: This scenario involves peer conflict, which is important to address, but it does not necessarily indicate an immediate risk of harm. Clients with antisocial behavior often engage in conflict due to manipulative or confrontational tendencies, but being yelled at does not mean they are in immediate danger. The nurse should monitor the situation and intervene to prevent escalation, but other safety concerns take priority.
Choice D reason: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa who is refusing to eat the evening snack does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that causes extreme restriction of food intake and fear of weight gain. Refusing to eat the evening snack may indicate distorted body image, dietary rules, or anxiety, which are common factors of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should encourage the client to eat and provide support and education.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice B reason: Reviewing the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage is an important action, but not the first one. The nurse should first identify and correct the cause of bleeding, such as bladder distension or uterine atony, before checking for blood loss and anemia.
Choice C reason: Massaging the uterus to decrease atony is not indicated in this case, because the uterus is already firm. Massaging a firm uterus can cause overstimulation and pain.
Choice D reason: Increasing intravenous infusion is not the first action, because it may worsen bleeding by increasing blood pressure and diluting clotting factors. The nurse should first assess and manage bleeding before administering fluids or blood products as prescribed.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Providing bedside equipment for transmission and protective precautions is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a standard precaution that should be already in place for all clients in the critical care unit. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: Evaluating daily serum electrolytes and hydration status is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a routine assessment that can be done later after addressing the immediate problem of infection. This is another distractor choice.
Choice C: Culturing sputum, urine, burn wound, and all intravenous access sites is the first action that the nurse should implement, as this can help identify the source and type of infection, which can guide the appropriate antibiotic therapy and prevent further complications. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice D: Implementing central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) protocols is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a preventive measure that may not be applicable for this client who already has SIRS. This is another distractor choice.
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