A 6-week-old infant with poor weight gain is scheduled for a pyloromyotomy. Which pre-operative nursing action has the highest priority?
Mark an outline of the "olive-shaped" mass in the right epigastric area.
Maintain a continuous infusion of IV fluids per prescription.
Monitor amount of intake and infant's response to feedings.
Instruct parents regarding care of the incisional area.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Marking an outline of the "olive-shaped" mass in the right epigastric area is not a priority nursing action. The mass is caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter, which obstructs gastric emptying and causes projectile vomiting. The mass may not be palpable in all cases.
Choice C reason: Monitoring amount of intake and infant's response to feedings is important, but not the highest priority. The infant may have difficulty feeding due to nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
Choice D reason: Instructing parents regarding care of the incisional area is a post-operative nursing action, not a pre-operative one. The parents will need to learn how to keep the incision clean and dry, monitor for signs of infection, and administer pain medication as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: Creatinine is not a relevant laboratory test for the nurse to monitor, as this reflects renal function and is not affected by naproxen or arthritis. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: Serum calcium is not a pertinent laboratory test for the nurse to monitor, as this indicates bone metabolism and is not related to naproxen or arthritis. This is another distractor choice.
Choice C: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is not an important laboratory test for the nurse to monitor, as this measures inflammation and is not influenced by naproxen or stomach pain. This is another distractor choice.
Choice D: Hemoglobin is an essential laboratory test for the nurse to monitor, as this shows blood oxygen-carrying capacity and can be reduced by naproxen-induced gastrointestinal bleeding, which can cause stomach pain, weakness, and fatigue. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa refusing to eat the evening snack is a concern, but it’s not an immediate threat. The nurse can address this issue after dealing with more urgent situations.
Choice B: An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by other clients requires immediate attention. This situation can escalate quickly and may lead to physical harm or emotional distress for the client.
Choice C: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression refusing to participate in group is a concern, but it’s not an immediate threat. The nurse can address this issue after dealing with more urgent situations.
Choice D: A 17-year-old client diagnosed with bipolar disorder pacing around the lobby might be experiencing agitation or restlessness, but unless they’re showing signs of immediate distress or posing a risk to themselves or others, it’s not the most urgent situation.
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