The practical nurse (PN) receives shift report for four newborns in the full-term newborn nursery.
Which infant should the PN assess first?
The ten-hour-old with circumoral cyanosis.
The one-day-old with a positive Babinski's reflex
The two-day old with negative Ortolani's sign
The six-hour-old with a large sacral "stork bite"
The Correct Answer is A
Circumoral cyanosis is a bluish discoloration around the mouth that indicates inadequate oxygenation. It is an abnormal finding in a full-term newborn and requires immediate assessment and intervention by the PN.
The other options are not correct because:
- A positive Babinski's reflex is a normal finding in newborns that indicates intact neurological function. It is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot and observing the fanning of the toes.
- A negative Ortolani's sign is a normal finding in newborns that indicates no hip dislocation or dysplasia. It is elicited by abducting the hips and feeling for any clicking or clunking sensation.
- A large sacral "stork bite" is a common benign birthmark that appears as a reddish patch on the lower back or nape of the neck. It usually fades within the first year of life and does not require any treatment.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart attack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
B. The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.

C. The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
D. The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is the best action for the PN to use in assisting this client to deal with his pain because it provides a non-pharmacological method of pain relief that can enhance the effect of the opioid analgesic. Slow, rhythmic breathing can help the client relax, distract from the pain, and increase oxygenation and blood flow.

A. Dimming the lights in the room and closing the door may not be enough to help the client deal with his pain and may not address his psychological or emotional needs.
C. Turning the television on to the client's favorite show may not be effective in helping the client deal with his pain and may be distracting or irritating for him.
D. Obtaining a prescription for a higher dose of pain medication may not be necessary or appropriate for this client and may increase the risk of side effects or dependence. The PN should assess the client's pain level and response to the current dose before requesting a change in medication.
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