The practical nurse (PN) notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F (37.66°C); pulse 94; respirations 22; and blood pressure (BP) 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
Monitor the client's temperature hourly.
Offer the client fluids frequently.
Provide care to moisten oral mucosa.
Report the findings to the charge nurse.
The Correct Answer is D
Correct Answer: D. Report the findings to the charge nurse.
Choice A rationale:
Monitoring the client's temperature hourly may be indicated if the client's condition deteriorates or if there are specific concerns about fever. However, the temperature of 99.8°F (37.66°C) is not significantly elevated and may not be the primary concern in this situation.
Choice B rationale:
Offering the client fluids frequently is a good nursing practice, but it is not the most important intervention in this case. The client's nonproductive cough and increased confusion need to be addressed and reported first.
Choice C rationale:
Providing care to moisten oral mucosa is important for maintaining oral health and preventing dryness and discomfort. However, it may not directly address the client's current symptoms of cough and confusion.
Choice D rationale:
Reporting the findings to the charge nurse is the most crucial intervention. The client's nonproductive cough and increased confusion may be indicative of an underlying issue, such as a respiratory infection or a change in neurological status. The charge nurse can initiate further assessments, notify the healthcare provider, and implement appropriate interventions to address the client's condition promptly. Timely reporting and communication are essential to ensure the client receives appropriate care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.75"]
Explanation
To calculate the amount of mL to administer, the PN should use the following formula:
mL = (mcg x 1 mg/1000 mcg) / (mg/mL)
Plugging in the given values, we get:
mL = (150 x 1/1000) / (0.2)
mL = 0.15 / 0.2
mL = 0.75
Therefore, the PN should administer 0.75 mL of octreotide subcutaneously.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Coffee-ground secretions draining via nasogastric tube suction.
Choice A rationale:
Oral ice chips eaten 30 minutes after vomiting postoperatively could be considered normal in some cases. However, this finding may not require immediate reporting to the RN unless
other concerning symptoms are present. Choice B rationale:
The inability to void 4 hours after discontinuing an indwelling catheter is not an immediate concern. It's not uncommon for some clients to experience difficulty urinating initially after catheter removal. The client should be closely monitored, and the RN should be informed if the situation persists or worsens.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer because coffee-ground secretions draining via nasogastric tube suction can indicate bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, potentially from the stomach or esophagus. This finding requires immediate attention as it could be a sign of a serious condition and may require urgent intervention.
Choice D rationale:
Ineffective pain management reported while using morphine PCA is a concern but may not be as critical as the coffee-ground secretions. The PN should still report this finding to the RN for appropriate assessment and possible adjustment of pain management, but it may not warrant immediate reporting.
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