The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with coronary artery disease who is admitted with intermittent chest pain. The admission laboratory results indicate elevations in troponin I and creatine phosphokinase myoglobin isoenzyme (CK-MB) levels. What should the PN consider the most significant risk for this client on the second day of admission?

The lab results indicate myocardial damage, and the client is at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.

The client is at risk for pulmonary embolism, and lifestyle modifications need to be implemented.

The client is at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain and subsequent myocardial infarction (MI).

The lab results indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), and neurological vital signs should be monitored.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suﬀered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart attack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.

The other options are not correct because:

B. The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.

C. The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood ﬂow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.

D. The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood ﬂow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is Choice A:

"Are you planning to obey the voices?.”. Choice A rationale:

The PN should ask the client if he plans to obey the voices because it helps assess the potential risk of harm to himself or others. If the client indicates an intention to follow the voices' commands to harm someone, it indicates a serious concern for safety and may require immediate intervention to protect the client and others.

Choice B rationale:

While asking if the client believes the voices are real is important for understanding the client's perception of the situation, it may not immediately address the risk of harm that the client or others might be facing.

Choice C rationale:

Asking if the client has taken any hallucinogens is relevant to explore possible substance- induced psychosis, but this question should be asked later in the assessment process. The priority is to assess immediate safety concerns related to the client's compliance with the voices' instructions.

Choice D rationale:

Inquiring about when the voices began is important, but it is not the most urgent question in this situation. Although the onset of the symptoms is relevant, addressing the potential for harmful actions should be prioritized.

Correct Answer is ["0.75"]

Explanation

To calculate the amount of mL to administer, the PN should use the following formula:

mL = (mcg x 1 mg/1000 mcg) / (mg/mL)

Plugging in the given values, we get:

mL = (150 x 1/1000) / (0.2)

mL = 0.15 / 0.2

mL = 0.75

Therefore, the PN should administer 0.75 mL of octreotide subcutaneously.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A male college student brings his roommate to the clinic because the roommate has been talking to someone who is not present. The client tells the practical nurse (PN) that the voices are saying, "Kill, kill.”. Which question should the PN ask the client next?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The healthcare provider prescribed octreotide 150 mcg/day subcutaneously for a client with dumping syndrome. The medication is available in 0.2 mg/mL vials. How many mL should the practical nurse (PN) administer? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest hundredth).

Correct Answer is ["0.75"]

Explanation

A client is admitted for treatment of Addison's crisis. Which finding is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to report to the charge nurse? Reference Range: Glucose [Reference Range: 0 to 50 years: less than 140 mg/dL or less than 7.8 mmol/L].

The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who has darkened membranes of the mouth and a smoky breath. Which priority nursing problem should the PN include in the plan of care?

A client who had orthopedic surgery three days ago verbalizes difficulty in sleeping. Which initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

A 16-year-old client is asking the practical nurse (PN) what can be done about acne. Which recommendation should the PN provide?

At the first dressing change, the practical nurse (PN) tells the client that her mastectomy incision is healing well, but the client refuses to look at the incision and refuses to talk about it. Which response by the PN to the client's silence is best?