The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with coronary artery disease who is admitted with intermittent chest pain. The admission laboratory results indicate elevations in troponin I and creatine phosphokinase myoglobin isoenzyme (CK-MB) levels. What should the PN consider the most significant risk for this client on the second day of admission?
The lab results indicate myocardial damage, and the client is at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
The client is at risk for pulmonary embolism, and lifestyle modifications need to be implemented.
The client is at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain and subsequent myocardial infarction (MI).
The lab results indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), and neurological vital signs should be monitored.
The Correct Answer is A
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart attack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
B. The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
C. The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
D. The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is the best action that describes the responsibility of the PN because it ensures that the client has given informed consent for the invasive examination and that the consent form is valid and documented. The PN should verify that the provider has explained the examination, its risks and benefits, and alternative options to the client and that the client has agreed to proceed.
A. Explaining the examination and asking the client to sign the consent form is not the responsibility of the PN but of the provider who will perform the examination.
B. Obtaining the medical record for the correct signed consent form prior to the examination is not enough to ensure informed consent and may not involve any interaction with the client.
C. Asking if the client understands the exam and why the consent form must be signed is not enough to ensure informed consent and may not address any questions or concerns that the client may have.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A: Excruciating pain
- Rationale: While partial thickness burns can be painful, especially in the first few days, excruciating pain is less likely for a stable patient 3 days post-burn. Pain management is a crucial aspect of burn care, but excruciating pain might indicate deeper burns or complications like infection.
Choice B: Elevated blood pressure
- Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is not a typical complication of a partial thickness burn. In fact, burn patients are more at risk for hypotension (low blood pressure) due to fluid loss.
Choice C: Compartment syndrome
- Rationale: Compartment syndrome is a serious complication that typically occurs with deep burns or traumatic injuries. It's caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, restricting blood flow and potentially leading to tissue death. While a possibility, it's less likely for a partial thickness burn 3 days after the injury.
Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
- Rationale: Curling's ulcer is a peptic ulcer (stomach ulcer) that can develop as a complication of major burns. This is because burns trigger a massive inflammatory response, releasing stress hormones that increase stomach acid production, making the stomach lining more susceptible to ulcers. Given the extensive burn area (30% TBSA) and the timeframe (3 days post-burn), Curling's ulcer becomes a significant concern.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
Explanation:
- A 30% TBSA partial thickness burn is a significant injury that triggers a systemic inflammatory response.
- Three days post-burn falls within the timeframe when Curling's ulcer can develop due to the increased stress hormones and gastric acid production.
- While pain management and monitoring for compartment syndrome are important, Curling's ulcer poses a more significant threat in this scenario.
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