The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with coronary artery disease who is admitted with intermittent chest pain. The admission laboratory results indicate elevations in troponin I and creatine phosphokinase myoglobin isoenzyme (CK-MB) levels. What should the PN consider the most significant risk for this client on the second day of admission?
The lab results indicate myocardial damage, and the client is at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
The client is at risk for pulmonary embolism, and lifestyle modifications need to be implemented.
The client is at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain and subsequent myocardial infarction (MI).
The lab results indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), and neurological vital signs should be monitored.
The Correct Answer is A
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart attack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
B. The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.

C. The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
D. The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A: Excruciating pain
- Rationale: While partial thickness burns can be painful, especially in the first few days, excruciating pain is less likely for a stable patient 3 days post-burn. Pain management is a crucial aspect of burn care, but excruciating pain might indicate deeper burns or complications like infection.
Choice B: Elevated blood pressure
- Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is not a typical complication of a partial thickness burn. In fact, burn patients are more at risk for hypotension (low blood pressure) due to fluid loss.
Choice C: Compartment syndrome
- Rationale: Compartment syndrome is a serious complication that typically occurs with deep burns or traumatic injuries. It's caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, restricting blood flow and potentially leading to tissue death. While a possibility, it's less likely for a partial thickness burn 3 days after the injury.
Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
- Rationale: Curling's ulcer is a peptic ulcer (stomach ulcer) that can develop as a complication of major burns. This is because burns trigger a massive inflammatory response, releasing stress hormones that increase stomach acid production, making the stomach lining more susceptible to ulcers. Given the extensive burn area (30% TBSA) and the timeframe (3 days post-burn), Curling's ulcer becomes a significant concern.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
Explanation:
- A 30% TBSA partial thickness burn is a significant injury that triggers a systemic inflammatory response.
- Three days post-burn falls within the timeframe when Curling's ulcer can develop due to the increased stress hormones and gastric acid production.
- While pain management and monitoring for compartment syndrome are important, Curling's ulcer poses a more significant threat in this scenario.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Measure the next voiding, then palpate the client's bladder.
Choice A rationale:
Catheterizing the client for residual urine volume is not necessary at this point because the woman has recently given birth, and frequent urination is common during the postpartum period. Additionally, catheterization poses risks of infection, so it should be reserved for situations where it is clinically indicated.
Choice B rationale:
Evaluating for normal involution and massaging the fundus is not relevant in this context. Fundal massage is performed after childbirth to ensure the uterus contracts and prevents excessive bleeding. The woman's concern is about frequent urination, which does not require fundal massage.
Choice C rationale:
Measuring the next voiding and palpating the client's bladder is the most appropriate action. The woman's increased frequency of urination could be due to postpartum diuresis, a normal physiological process where the body eliminates excess fluid accumulated during pregnancy. By measuring the next voiding and palpating the bladder, the nurse can assess for bladder distension or retention, which could be signs of a problem.
Choice D rationale:
Obtaining a specimen for urine culture and sensitivity is not indicated in this situation. There is no evidence to suggest that the woman has a urinary tract infection or other urinary issues that would warrant a urine culture at this time.
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