The parent of a 6-year-old says. "My child is in constant motion and talks all the time. My child isn't interested in toys but is out of bed every morning before me." The child's behavior is most consistent with diagnostic criteria for
communication disorder.
Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder (ADHD).
intellectual development disorder.
stereotypic movement disorder.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Communication disorders involve difficulties with speech, language, or communication (e.g., stuttering, limited vocabulary). The main problem here is hyperactivity, not speech/language impairment.
B. ADHD is characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. Behaviors such as being in constant motion, excessive talking, lack of sustained interest in activities, and getting up early with energy are hallmark signs of hyperactive/impulsive type ADHD.
C. Intellectual development disorder (formerly mental retardation) involves below-average intellectual functioning and impaired adaptive skills, not constant hyperactivity and excessive talking.
D. Stereotypic movement disorder is repetitive, purposeless motor behavior (e.g., hand flapping, head banging), not generalized hyperactivity and impulsivity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "My family will be better off without me" is an indirect or covert suicidal statement (passive ideation) that suggests the patient believes others would be better off if they were gone. Such remarks require immediate assessment of suicide risk (ask directly about thoughts, intent, plan, access to means) and appropriate safety interventions.
B. "Life is not worth living" is an explicit expression of hopelessness and indicates suicidal ideation, but it is more overt than covert. It still warrants urgent assessment, but the question asked specifically for the covert message.
C. "I wish I were dead" is a direct statement of suicidal desire (overt) rather than a covert hint.
D. "I have a plan that will fix everything" is the most concerning because it indicates a specific plan (high lethality risk), but it is overt rather than covert.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The patient’s symptoms are physiological and neurological, not intentional behaviors for attention.
B. Alcohol withdrawal delirium (delirium tremens) typically occurs 48–72 hours after the last drink and includes tremors, agitation, anxiety, diaphoresis, tachycardia, hallucinations, and nightmares—all present in this patient.
C. Although head injury can cause confusion and agitation, the timing of symptoms following alcohol withdrawal aligns more closely with delirium tremens.
D. Acute psychosis can present with hallucinations, but in this case, the onset following alcohol cessation and accompanying autonomic hyperactivity point toward alcohol withdrawal delirium.
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