The parent of a 1-year-old child with tetralogy of Fallot asks the nurse, "Why do my child's fingertips look like that?" On what understanding does the nurse base a response?
Clubbing occurs as a result of decreased cardiac output.
Clubbing occurs as a result of a left-to-right shunting of blood.
Clubbing occurs as a result of chronic hypoxia
Clubbing occurs as a result of untreated congestive heart failure.
The Correct Answer is C
C. Clubbing, characterized by bulbous enlargement of the fingertips and nail bed, is a result of chronic hypoxia in tetralogy of Fallot. In tetralogy of Fallot, there is a right-to-left shunting of blood due to the presence of a ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. This leads to reduced oxygenation of blood and chronic hypoxia, which can result in clubbing of the fingertips over time.
A This option is not the primary explanation for clubbing in tetralogy of Fallot. While decreased cardiac output may contribute to some manifestations of the condition, clubbing specifically results from chronic hypoxia rather than decreased cardiac output alone.
B Clubbing is not directly caused by a left-to-right shunting of blood. Instead, it is associated with chronic hypoxia, which can occur due to right-to-left shunting of blood in tetralogy of Fallot.
D Congestive heart failure may occur in individuals with tetralogy of Fallot but it is not the primary cause of clubbing. Clubbing in tetralogy of Fallot is primarily attributed to chronic hypoxia rather than heart failure alone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The absence of the dorsalis pedis pulse in the right foot is concerning and could indicate compromised circulation to the extremity. It is essential to notify the healthcare provider promptly so that further assessment and intervention can be initiated to address the circulation issue and prevent potential complications such as ischemia or tissue damage.
B. Administering an analgesic may be necessary to manage the child's pain, especially if they are experiencing discomfort due to the femur fracture. However, addressing the absent dorsalis pedis pulse takes priority as it suggests a potential vascular problem that requires immediate attention.
C. Releasing the skin traction may not be appropriate at this point without further assessment and guidance from the healthcare provider. Skin traction is often used to temporarily stabilize fractures and reduce pain, and releasing it without proper evaluation could potentially exacerbate the injury or compromise the child's comfort and stability.
D. Applying ice to the extremity is not indicated in this situation. Ice application is typically used for acute injuries to reduce swelling and inflammation, but it is not appropriate when there is concern about compromised circulation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. The most serious complication associated with skeletal traction is osteomyelitis, an infection that involves the bone. This condition can occur when organisms gain access to the bone either systemically or through the openings created by the metal pins or wires used in the traction.
A. Increased blood pressure can occur for various reasons but it is not the most serious complication associated with skeletal traction.
C. A decrease in urine output could indicate systemic infection which is a late feature of osteomyelitis and therefore, not the earliest to monitor.
D. Changes in appetite can occur in response to pain or stress but they are not typically the most serious complication associated with skeletal traction.
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