The nurse who is working in the telemetry unit measures the PR interval of the client's rhythm strip depicted below. What is the nurse's analysis of the PR interval?

Atria is taking longer to depolarize and contract
Conduction time is slowed from the SA node to the ventricles
The PR interval is within the normal time limits
Ventricular repolarization is delayed
The Correct Answer is C
A. Atria is taking longer to depolarize and contract: This would be indicated by a prolonged or abnormal P wave, not a normal PR interval. The rhythm strip shows clearly visible, normal-appearing P waves followed by QRS complexes, ruling this out as the correct interpretation.
B. Conduction time is slowed from the SA node to the ventricles: A slowed conduction time would result in a PR interval longer than 0.20 seconds, characteristic of first-degree AV block. The PR interval on this strip measures within the standard range (0.12–0.20 seconds), so this is not accurate.
C. The PR interval is within the normal time limits: The PR interval on the ECG strip spans about 3 to 4 small boxes (0.12–0.16 seconds), which is within the normal range of 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. This indicates normal conduction from the atria through the AV node to the ventricles.
D. Ventricular repolarization is delayed: Delayed ventricular repolarization refers to a prolonged QT interval, not an abnormality in the PR interval. The PR interval evaluates atrial conduction, not ventricular repolarization, so this is an incorrect association.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increase in systolic blood pressure 10 mmHg above client's norm: A mild increase in systolic blood pressure is not a specific indicator of mitral stenosis progression. Blood pressure fluctuations may occur due to various factors and are not typically used as a primary marker of worsening valve disease.
B. reports dyspnea after walking up 2 flights of stairs: Exertional dyspnea is a common early symptom of mitral stenosis due to reduced left atrial emptying and pulmonary congestion. However, this does not necessarily indicate worsening unless the symptom becomes more severe or occurs with minimal exertion.
C. Jugular vein distention and +3 peripheral edema: These are signs of right-sided heart failure, which may result from long-standing mitral stenosis leading to pulmonary hypertension and subsequent right ventricular hypertrophy and failure. This indicates disease progression and worsening cardiac function.
D. Complaints of epigastric pain after eating a large meal: Epigastric discomfort is not a typical symptom of mitral stenosis and is more likely related to gastrointestinal issues. It does not reflect the status or progression of the cardiac condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads: While this is a potential intervention for symptomatic or severe bradycardia unresponsive to medications, it is premature as a first step in this scenario. The client is stable with a heart rate of 50 bpm and no mention of hemodynamic compromise.
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position: This position is used to improve venous return in hypotensive patients, but there is no evidence of hypotension or poor perfusion. It is not an appropriate response to mild bradycardia in this context.
C. Call the doctor for an order to decrease the infusion rate: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows AV node conduction, potentially causing bradycardia. Since the heart rate has dropped to 50 bpm, the most appropriate first action is to contact the provider to adjust the infusion rate, which may be too high for the client’s current rhythm.
D. Administer a dose of atropine: Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. If the client is asymptomatic and the bradycardia is mild and medication-induced, adjusting or discontinuing the offending agent should be attempted before administering atropine.
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