The nurse assesses a client who is prescribed digoxin. The client reports nausea and seeing green halos. Which action should the nurse perform?
Administer the dose later in the day when their nausea subsides
Assess the client's apical rate
Contact the physician for STAT serum potassium level
Administer the client's prescribed dose intravenously
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administer the dose later in the day when their nausea subsides: Delaying the dose does not address the underlying concern of potential digoxin toxicity. Symptoms like nausea and visual disturbances suggest toxicity and require immediate assessment rather than postponement.
B. Assess the client's apical rate: The first and most appropriate nursing action is to assess the apical heart rate for one full minute, as bradycardia is a key indicator of digoxin toxicity. If the rate is below 60 bpm, the dose should be held, and the provider should be notified.
C. Contact the physician for STAT serum potassium level: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, but while checking potassium is important, it is not the first step. Assessment of heart rate is more immediately critical in evaluating the need to hold the medication.
D. Administer the client's prescribed dose intravenously: Administering the dose especially IV when the client has symptoms of toxicity could worsen the situation. Digoxin should be held, not given, until further evaluation and provider notification.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dehydration: The elevated hemoglobin (17 g/dL) and hematocrit (54%), along with an increased BUN (28 mg/dL) and normal creatinine, suggest hemoconcentration, a key indicator of dehydration. Small bowel obstruction often leads to fluid loss through vomiting and third spacing into the bowel, contributing to this condition.
B. Infection: The WBC count is normal at 8.5, which does not support an active infection. Infections typically result in leukocytosis (WBC >10.5), especially in acute abdominal conditions.
C. Renal insufficiency: Although BUN is elevated, creatinine remains normal (1.1 mg/dL). This pattern, particularly with hemoconcentration, supports pre-renal azotemia due to dehydration, not intrinsic renal insufficiency.
D. Internal bleeding: Internal bleeding typically causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit due to blood loss. The elevated values in this case rule out active bleeding and instead indicate fluid volume deficit.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. ambulate in the hall 3 times daily without shortness of breath: This directly reflects improved tolerance to activity, the central focus of the nursing diagnosis. Being able to ambulate without dyspnea indicates better cardiac output and ventricular function, marking resolution of the identified problem.
B. have an increase in systolic blood pressure of 20 mmHg during activity: A rise in systolic pressure may occur with exertion, but it does not necessarily indicate improved activity tolerance. In fact, an exaggerated BP response could indicate the heart is working harder than it should to meet the demands, suggesting poor cardiovascular adaptation to exercise.
C. decrease weight from 150 lbs. (68.2 kg.) to 148 lbs. (67.3 kg.) in five days: A slight weight reduction may reflect decreased fluid retention, but this outcome is more relevant to volume status and fluid balance than to resolving activity intolerance specifically.
D. verbalize the signs and symptoms of worsening heart failure by discharge:
While important for client education and self-management, this outcome relates to knowledge rather than physical tolerance to activity. It does not directly measure resolution of activity intolerance.
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