The nurse is caring for a client who has been successfully resuscitated following a cardiac arrest and is now on an IV infusion of epinephrine. The cardiac monitor shows a heart rate of 120 beats/minute. What should be the nurse's best action?

Maintain the infusion because the client had a cardiac arrest.

Continue to monitor the client's rhythm closely.

Suggest that the client's medication be changed to norepinephrine.

Ask the physician if the dose can be decreased.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Maintain the infusion because the client had a cardiac arrest: While epinephrine is essential during cardiac arrest, continuing a high-dose infusion post-resuscitation without reassessment may lead to complications like tachycardia, hypertension, and increased myocardial oxygen demand.

B. Continue to monitor the client's rhythm closely: Ongoing monitoring is important, but it is a passive intervention. The heart rate of 120 bpm may reflect excessive adrenergic stimulation from epinephrine, and further action is needed to prevent deterioration.

C. Suggest that the client's medication be changed to norepinephrine: Norepinephrine is another vasopressor that has less of a beta-1 adrenergic effect compared to epinephrine. It is primarily used for hypotension and septic shock, not as a direct substitute for epinephrine post-cardiac arrest. Changing to another vasopressor without indication is not the best initial step.

D. Ask the physician if the dose can be decreased: A heart rate of 120 bpm may indicate that the epinephrine dose is too high, causing sympathetic overstimulation. Prolonged or excessive tachycardia increases myocardial oxygen demand, which can be detrimental, especially in a post-arrest heart. Decreasing the dose can help prevent arrhythmias or myocardial ischemia, making this the most appropriate and proactive action.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads: While this is a potential intervention for symptomatic or severe bradycardia unresponsive to medications, it is premature as a first step in this scenario. The client is stable with a heart rate of 50 bpm and no mention of hemodynamic compromise.

B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position: This position is used to improve venous return in hypotensive patients, but there is no evidence of hypotension or poor perfusion. It is not an appropriate response to mild bradycardia in this context.

C. Call the doctor for an order to decrease the infusion rate: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows AV node conduction, potentially causing bradycardia. Since the heart rate has dropped to 50 bpm, the most appropriate first action is to contact the provider to adjust the infusion rate, which may be too high for the client’s current rhythm.

D. Administer a dose of atropine: Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. If the client is asymptomatic and the bradycardia is mild and medication-induced, adjusting or discontinuing the offending agent should be attempted before administering atropine.

A. Administer amiodarone 200 mg IV push B. Defibrillate the client using 200 joules C. CPR until the physician stops the code D. Administer adenosine 12 mg IV push

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Administer amiodarone 200 mg IV push: Amiodarone is used for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) that are refractory to defibrillation. The rhythm on the monitor is asystole, which is non-shockable, and amiodarone is not indicated here.

B. Defibrillate the client using 200 joules: Defibrillation is only appropriate for shockable rhythms such as VF or pulseless VT. Asystole is not shockable, and defibrillation in this rhythm would be ineffective and inappropriate.

C. CPR until the physician stops the code: The rhythm strip shows asystole, a flatline with no electrical activity. The priority intervention is to initiate and continue high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately and continue until the code is terminated by the physician. This is consistent with Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) guidelines.

D. Administer adenosine 12 mg IV push: Adenosine is used to terminate supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and is not indicated in asystole or during cardiac arrest. It would have no effect in a rhythm with no electrical activity.

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The nurse is caring for a client who has been successfully resuscitated following a cardiac arrest and is now on an IV infusion of epinephrine. The cardiac monitor shows a heart rate of 120 beats/minute. What should be the nurse's best action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Explanation

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