The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is:

Negative.

non-reactive.

reactive

Positive.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is considered reactive. A reactive NST is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and indicates that the fetal nervous system and cardiovascular system are intact and functioning appropriately. If a reactive NST is not obtained, further testing or evaluation may be necessary to assess fetal well-being.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Assessing fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs would be the highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy. This is because fetal distress or maternal instability may require immediate medical intervention, such as delivery via emergency cesarean section or blood transfusions, respectively.

Therefore, assessing the FHR and maternal vital signs will help to determine the urgency of the situation and guide the next steps in the management of the patient. Once the patient's condition has stabilized, performing venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, monitoring uterine contractions, and placing clean disposable pads to collect any drainage can be done as appropriate.

A. History of cesarean section for fetal distress. B. Fear of natural childbirth. C. Current pregnancy is complicated by gestational diabetes. D. History of cephalopelvic disproportion with first pregnancy.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A history of cesarean section for fetal distress is an indication for a repeat cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies, as the risk of recurrence of fetal distress is higher. A trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) may be attempted in some cases, but a planned cesarean section is often recommended.
Option B is incorrect because fear of natural childbirth is not a medical indication for a cesarean section.
Option C is incorrect because gestational diabetes does not typically require a cesarean section unless other complications arise, such as fetal macrosomia or failed induction of labor.
Option D is incorrect because a history of cephalopelvic disproportion with the first pregnancy may not necessarily require a cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies. A trial of labor may be attempted, depending on the circumstances.

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The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A cesarean section would be most appropriate for which of the following clients?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Cervidil (dinoprostone) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 42 weeks of gestation. The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to:

Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; the most common is:

The nurse is caring for a 30-week gestation client who was loaded on a magnesium sulfate infusion one hour ago for preterm labor. Which of the following assessment findings would warrant the infusion to be discontinued immediately?

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On examining a woman who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. The nurse's first action is to:

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