A cesarean section would be most appropriate for which of the following clients?
History of cesarean section for fetal distress.
Fear of natural childbirth.
Current pregnancy is complicated by gestational diabetes.
History of cephalopelvic disproportion with first pregnancy.
The Correct Answer is A
A history of cesarean section for fetal distress is an indication for a repeat cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies, as the risk of recurrence of fetal distress is higher. A trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) may be attempted in some cases, but a planned cesarean section is often recommended.
Option B is incorrect because fear of natural childbirth is not a medical indication for a cesarean section.
Option C is incorrect because gestational diabetes does not typically require a cesarean section unless other complications arise, such as fetal macrosomia or failed induction of labor.
Option D is incorrect because a history of cephalopelvic disproportion with the first pregnancy may not necessarily require a cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies. A trial of labor may be attempted, depending on the circumstances.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A history of cesarean section for fetal distress is an indication for a repeat cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies, as the risk of recurrence of fetal distress is higher. A trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) may be attempted in some cases, but a planned cesarean section is often recommended.
Option B is incorrect because fear of natural childbirth is not a medical indication for a cesarean section.
Option C is incorrect because gestational diabetes does not typically require a cesarean section unless other complications arise, such as fetal macrosomia or failed induction of labor.
Option D is incorrect because a history of cephalopelvic disproportion with the first pregnancy may not necessarily require a cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies. A trial of labor may be attempted, depending on the circumstances.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Based on the provided information, the probable diagnosis for the spontaneous abortion in this woman would be a threatened abortion, since the cervix is closed and there is no evidence of expulsion of fetal or placental tissue. A threatened abortion is defined as vaginal bleeding occurring before the 20th week of gestation, with a closed cervical os, and no expulsion of fetal or placental tissue.
The other types of spontaneous abortion are defined as follows:
B. Inevitable abortion: vaginal bleeding and cramping with an open cervical os, with or without expulsion of fetal or placental tissue
C. Missed abortion: fetal demise without expulsion of fetal tissue, and may be associated with a closed cervical os and absence of uterine contractions
D. Incomplete abortion: partial expulsion of fetal or placental tissue, with or without vaginal bleeding, and may be associated with an open cervical os and uterine contractions
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