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The nurse plans to administer naloxone 1 mg. The label of the 10 mL vial indicates that the drug concentration is 0.4 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
(Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["2.5"]

To find the volume of the solution needed, the nurse can use the formula:

Volume (mL) = Dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL)

Substituting the given values, we get:

Volume (mL) = 1 mg / 0.4 mg/mL

Simplifying, we get:

Volume (mL) = 2.5 mL

Therefore, the nurse should administer 2.5 mL of naloxone to give a dose of 1 mg.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because abdominal girth can indicate the presence of fecal impaction, but it does not reflect the client's hemodynamic status or potential complications of the procedure.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because bowel sounds can indicate the level of bowel motility, but they do not provide information about the client's cardiovascular or respiratory function.

Choice C Reason: This is correct because vital signs can indicate the client's baseline condition and any changes during or after the procedure. Digital removal of a fecal impaction can stimulate the vagus nerve and cause bradycardia, hypotension, or cardiac arrest.

Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because breath sounds can indicate the client's respiratory status, but they are not directly affected by the procedure. However, breath sounds should be monitored for signs of aspiration if the client receives sedation or analgesia.

A. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with water. B. Review the advance directive document. C. Elevate the head of bed 45 degrees. D. Perform oropharyngeal suctioning.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is: d. Perform oropharyngeal suctioning.

Choice A: Irrigate the nasogastric tube with water

Reason: Irrigating the nasogastric tube with water is not appropriate when a client is choking and vomiting. This action could potentially worsen the situation by introducing more fluid into the stomach, increasing the risk of aspiration.

Choice B: Review the advance directive document

Reason: Reviewing the advance directive document is not an immediate action to take when a client is choking. Advance directives provide guidance on the client’s wishes for medical treatment but do not address acute emergency interventions.

Choice C: Elevate the head of bed 45 degrees

Reason: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees can help reduce the risk of aspiration by using gravity to keep stomach contents down. However, this action alone is not sufficient to address the immediate choking hazard.

Choice D: Perform oropharyngeal suctioning

Reason: Performing oropharyngeal suctioning is the correct action because it directly addresses the choking hazard by clearing the airway of vomit and other obstructions. This is a critical step to ensure the client’s airway is clear and they can breathe properly.

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The nurse plans to administer naloxone 1 mg. The label of the 10 mL vial indicates that the drug concentration is 0.4 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Prior to initiating digital removal of a fecal impaction, it is most important for the nurse to perform which client assessment?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A hospitalized client who has an advance directive and healthcare power of attorney is receiving enteral nutrition through a nasogastric (NG) tube. The client vomits and appears to be choking. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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The nurse plans to administer naloxone 1 mg. The label of the 10 mL vial indicates that the drug concentration is 0.4 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
(Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)