The nurse observes that a client on a clear liquid diet has a cup of coffee on the breakfast tray. Which action should the nurse implement?
Consult with the dietitian to learn if the client is allowed to drink coffee.
Remind the client that no milk or creamer can be added to the coffee.
Determine which member of the nursing staff brought the cup of coffee to the client.
Remove the coffee from the tray, advising the client that it is not included in the diet.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Consulting with the dietitian to learn if the client is allowed to drink coffee is not the best action to take. The nurse should already know the components of a clear liquid diet, which do not include coffee. Coffee is a stimulant that can irritate the gastrointestinal tract and interfere with the healing process.
Choice B reason: This is the correct action. A clear liquid diet allows for transparent liquids that leave no residue, such as black coffee. Adding milk or creamer would render the coffee opaque, making it unsuitable for a clear liquid diet. Therefore, it's appropriate to remind the client to consume the coffee without any additives.
Choice C reason: Determining which member of the nursing staff brought the cup of coffee to the client is not a priority action to take. The nurse should focus on the client's safety and well-being, not on assigning blame or finding fault. The nurse can address the issue with the staff later, after ensuring the client's needs are met.
Choice D reason: Removing the coffee is unnecessary, as black coffee is permitted on a clear liquid diet. Instead, the nurse should ensure the client understands not to add any prohibited substances like milk or creamer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Continuing the blood pressure assessment until the last Korotkoff sound is heard is not the best action to implement next. It may result in an inaccurate measurement of the diastolic pressure, as the cuff pressure may be too low to detect the sound.
Choice B reason: Repositioning the stethoscope in the antecubital fossa over the palpable brachial pulse point is not a necessary action to implement next. It may not affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement, as the nurse already hears the Korotkoff sounds clearly.
Choice C reason: Inflating the cuff quickly to a higher mm Hg reading than the previously auscultated systolic sound is not a safe action to implement next. It may cause discomfort and injury to the client, as the cuff pressure may be too high and occlude the blood flow.
Choice D reason: Releasing the air and reinflating the cuff to 30 mm Hg above the client's previous systolic reading is the best action to implement next. It helps to avoid the auscultatory gap, which is a period of silence between the systolic and diastolic pressures. It also ensures that the cuff pressure is high enough to detect the true systolic and diastolic pressures.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Urine specific gravity is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the urine. It is inversely related to the hydration status of the client. A high urine specific gravity indicates dehydration, while a low urine specific gravity indicates overhydration.
Choice B reason: Serum hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of red blood cells in the blood. It is also inversely related to the hydration status of the client. A high serum hematocrit indicates dehydration, while a low serum hematocrit indicates overhydration.
Choice C reason: Pulse rate is a measure of the frequency of the heartbeats. It is directly related to the hydration status of the client. A low pulse rate indicates dehydration, while a high pulse rate indicates overhydration.
Choice D reason: Urinary output is a measure of the amount of urine produced by the kidneys. It is directly related to the hydration status of the client. A low urinary output indicates dehydration, while a high urinary output indicates overhydration.
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