Two days after surgery, a male client experiences incisional pain while dangling his feet at the bedside and he refuses to ambulate as prescribed.
The nurse establishes a problem of 'Activity intolerance related to pain'. Based on this problem, which outcome statement is best for the nurse to include in his care plan?

To ambulate without discomfort.

To take analgesics as prescribed.

To show evidence of incision healing.

To avoid pain-causing activity.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The goal of the care plan should be to help the client overcome his activity intolerance related to pain.

This can be achieved by helping him to ambulate without discomfort.

Choice B is not the answer because taking analgesics as prescribed may help manage the pain but does not address the problem of activity intolerance.

Choice C is not the answer because showing evidence of incision healing is important but does not address the problem of activity intolerance.

Choice D is not the answer because avoiding pain-causing activity may help manage the pain but does not address the problem of activity intolerance.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This response shows that the nurse is willing to listen and provide support to the client.

It also allows the client to decide if they want to talk and share their feelings.

Choice A is not correct because it is not the most therapeutic response.

While it does encourage the client to talk about their visit with their significant other, it does not show that the nurse is willing to listen and provide support.

Choice B is not correct because it is not the most therapeutic response.

While it does acknowledge that the client may be feeling lonely, it does not show that the nurse is willing to listen and provide support.

Choice D is not correct because it is not the most therapeutic response.

While it does encourage the client to talk about their visit, it does not show that the nurse is willing to listen and provide support.

Correct Answer is ["4"]

Explanation

The client has been prescribed a one-time dose of metronidazole 2 grams by mouth.

Since 1 gram is equal to 1000 milligrams (mg), 2 grams is equal to 2000 mg.

The medication is available in 500 mg tablets, so the nurse should administer 2000 mg / 500 mg/tablet = 4 tablets.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client receives a prescription for a one-time dose of metronidazole 2 grams by mouth. The medication is available in 500 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Enter numerical value only).

Correct Answer is ["4"]

Explanation

A 19-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain. The father is requesting to know his son's laboratory test results. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?

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