The nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with atrial fibrillation. Which prescription should the nurse question?

Obtain consent for transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)

Obtain consent for a STAT defibrillation

Obtain consent for cardioversion.

Hold digoxin 48 hours prior to cardioversion.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Defibrillation is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation. It is used to treat life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, is a rapid and irregular atrial rhythm, and defibrillation is not indicated for its treatment.

Obtain consent for transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE): This is an appropriate action for a client with atrial fibrillation. A TEE is often performed to assess the structure and function of the heart in cases of atrial fibrillation, especially when considering cardioversion or other interventions.

Obtain consent for cardioversion: Cardioversion is a common treatment option for atrial fibrillation, especially when the client is unstable or experiencing symptoms. It involves restoring a normal heart rhythm through the use of electrical shocks or medications. It is important to obtain informed consent before performing cardioversion, but this does not necessarily require questioning.

Hold digoxin 48 hours prior to cardioversion: Digoxin is commonly held before cardioversion because it can increase the risk of certain arrhythmias during the procedure. This is a standard precaution to minimize potential adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse does not need to question this action, as it aligns with established guidelines.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The procedure uses electrical energy to destroy areas of the conduction system: Catheter ablation is a minimally invasive procedure performed to treat abnormal heart rhythms, such as atrial ﬂutter. During the procedure, a catheter is inserted into the heartand used to deliver electrical energy to speciﬁc areas of the heart tissue. This energy is used to destroy or ablate the abnormal conduction pathways that are causing the atrial ﬂutter.

Let's go through the other options and explain why they are not accurate:

The procedure stimulates the growth of new pathways between the atria: Catheter ablation does not stimulate the growth of new pathways. Instead, it aims to eliminate or modify existing abnormal pathways in the heart to restore normal electrical conduction.

The procedure uses cold therapy to stop the formation of the ﬂutter waves: Catheter ablation does not use cold therapy. It primarily utilizes radiofrequency energy or other sources of heat to ablate the targeted areas of the heart tissue.

The procedure prevents or minimizes the patient's risk for sudden cardiac death: While catheter ablation can be an effective treatment for certain arrhythmias, including atrial ﬂutter, it is not primarily performed to prevent or minimize the risk of sudden cardiac death. Its main purpose is to restore normal heart rhythm and alleviate symptoms associated with the arrhythmia.

A. A client with a blood pressure of 190/92 mm Hg who reports chest pain B. A client with a blood pressure of 190/104 mm Hg who has sinus tachycardia C. A client with a blood pressure of 178/90 mm Hg who has intermittent claudication D. A client with a blood pressure of 172/98 mm Hg scheduled for a stress test

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse should assess the client with a blood pressure of 190/92 mm Hg who reports chest pain ﬁrst. Chest pain can be a symptom of myocardial ischemia or a heart attack, which requires immediate attention. The combination of high blood pressure and chest pain is concerning and may indicate acute coronary syndrome. Prompt assessment and intervention are crucial to evaluate the cause of the chest pain and initiate appropriate treatment.

A client with a blood pressure of 190/104 mm Hg who has sinus tachycardia: While sinus tachycardia may indicate increased heart rate, it does not necessarily require immediate assessment unless other concerning symptoms are present. However, the nurse should address the elevated blood pressure in a timely manner.

Intermittent claudication refers to leg pain or discomfort during physical activity due to reduced blood ﬂow. While it is important to assess and manage this symptom, it is not typically considered an urgent condition requiring immediate assessment compared to chest pain.

The client scheduled for a stress test may have elevated blood pressure, but if they are stable and not currently experiencing symptoms, they may not require immediate assessment compared to a client with chest pain.

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The nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with atrial fibrillation. Which prescription should the nurse question?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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