The nurse is reviewing the client's prescriptions.
The nurse is administering medications to the client and is monitoring potential adverse effects of medications.
For each body system below, click to specify the assessment findings that could indicate a serious adverse reaction. Each body system may support more than 1 potential assessment finding. To deselect a finding. click on the finding again.
|
Body system |
Findings |
|
Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat (HEENT) |
Yellowing of the eyes Blurred vision Dry eyes |
|
Gastrointestinal |
Abdominal pain Weight gain |
|
Hematologic |
Increased bruising Increased bleeding tendency Insomnia |
|
Genitourinary |
Darkening of the urine Urinary frequency |
Yellowing of the eyes
Blurred vision
Dry eyes
Abdominal pain
Weight gain
Increased bruising
Increased bleeding tendency
Insomnia
Darkening of the urine
Urinary frequency
The Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","F","G","I"]
Rationale for correct choices:
• Yellowing of the eyes: Yellowing of the sclera indicates jaundice, which can occur with hepatotoxicity caused by isoniazid, rifampin, or pyrazinamide. These medications are metabolized by the liver and can cause liver inflammation or failure. Early recognition of jaundice is critical to prevent progression to severe hepatic injury.
• Blurred vision: Ethambutol is associated with optic neuritis, which can present as blurred vision or changes in visual acuity. This adverse effect can be irreversible if not identified early. Regular visual assessment is essential during therapy. Any report of visual changes requires immediate provider notification.
• Abdominal pain: Abdominal pain may indicate liver irritation or hepatitis related to antitubercular medications. Isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide commonly cause hepatotoxic effects. Abdominal discomfort, especially in the right upper quadrant, can signal worsening liver function. Prompt assessment helps prevent serious complications.
• Increased bruising: Increased bruising can indicate impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors due to hepatotoxicity. Rifampin and isoniazid may contribute to coagulation abnormalities. This finding suggests compromised hepatic function and increased bleeding risk.
• Increased bleeding tendency: A tendency to bleed reflects potential liver dysfunction affecting clotting factor production. Antitubercular therapy–related hepatotoxicity can lead to coagulopathy. This is a serious adverse reaction requiring immediate evaluation. Early detection reduces the risk of hemorrhage.
• Darkening of the urine: Dark urine can be a sign of elevated bilirubin levels from liver injury. Rifampin may also discolor urine, but when combined with other hepatic symptoms, it raises concern for hepatotoxicity. Monitoring urine color helps differentiate benign effects from serious complications. This finding warrants further liver assessment.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Dry eyes: Dry eyes are not associated with serious adverse reactions to tuberculosis medications. This finding does not indicate optic nerve involvement or liver toxicity. It is related to environmental or minor irritative causes.
• Weight gain: Weight gain is not a known adverse effect of first-line tuberculosis medications. In fact, weight loss is more common due to infection and medication side effects. This finding does not indicate toxicity.
• Insomnia: Although sleep disturbances may occur with illness or stress, insomnia is not a serious adverse reaction related to the prescribed medications. It does not signal organ toxicity. Other findings are more clinically significant.
• Urinary frequency: Urinary frequency is not associated with antitubercular medication toxicity. Genitourinary adverse effects typically involve urine discoloration rather than changes in frequency. This finding does not suggest a serious reaction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
• Anorexia nervosa: The client has a significantly low BMI, prolonged weight loss, refusal to eat, fear of weight gain, and distorted body image. Physical findings such as lanugo, bradycardia, hypotension, amenorrhea, and electrolyte abnormalities strongly support this diagnosis. The client’s restrictive eating patterns and compensatory behaviors further align with anorexia nervosa.
• Provide a structured meal environment: A structured meal plan reduces anxiety, discourages food manipulation, and promotes consistent nutritional intake. Supervised meals help prevent hiding, discarding food, or engaging in compensatory behaviors. Consistency also supports gradual weight restoration. This intervention is a core component of treatment for anorexia nervosa.
• Focus on the client’s underlying feelings of dysphoria and lack of control: Anorexia nervosa is often associated with emotional distress, low self-worth, and a need for control. Addressing these feelings helps the client develop healthier coping mechanisms beyond food restriction. Emotional support is essential alongside nutritional rehabilitation.
• Weight on a daily basis
Daily weight monitoring evaluates nutritional rehabilitation and treatment effectiveness. Gradual, consistent weight gain is a primary goal in anorexia nervosa management. Sudden changes may indicate dehydration, food restriction, or manipulation. Tracking weight trends guides care planning and risk assessment.
• Cardiac function with ECG: The client has sinus bradycardia and severe hypokalemia, both of which significantly increase the risk of arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Continuous or frequent ECG monitoring is essential to detect potentially life-threatening conduction abnormalities early.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Bulimia nervosa: Bulimia nervosa is characterized by binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors while maintaining normal or near-normal weight. This client demonstrates severe underweight status and primarily restrictive eating. The clinical presentation does not include recurrent binge episodes.
• Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder: This disorder lacks body image distortion or fear of weight gain. In contrast, the client expresses feeling “fat” and avoids food due to weight concerns. The presence of body dissatisfaction and intentional restriction supports anorexia nervosa instead.
• Binge eating disorder: Binge eating disorder involves recurrent binge episodes without compensatory behaviors and typically results in overweight or obesity. The client is underweight and restricts intake rather than bingeing. No loss-of-control eating episodes are described.
• Encourage the client to limit fasting: While reducing fasting is important, this intervention is too vague and does not address the need for structured, supervised nutrition. Clients with anorexia often require clear expectations rather than general encouragement. Without structure, the client may continue restrictive behaviors.
• Accept the client’s belief about “forbidden” foods: Accepting food-related distortions reinforces maladaptive beliefs and perpetuates restriction. Treatment focuses on challenging rigid food rules rather than validating them. Supporting these beliefs can worsen anxiety and nutritional deficits.
• Provide the client with foods that have a variety of textures: Texture variety may be useful later in recovery but is not a priority during acute stabilization. Early treatment emphasizes caloric adequacy and meal completion rather than sensory exploration. Introducing multiple textures may increase anxiety and refusal. Structured consistency is more effective initially.
• Calcium level: The client’s calcium level is within normal limits and does not currently indicate acute risk. Other parameters such as potassium, magnesium, and cardiac status are more clinically significant. Calcium monitoring does not best reflect short-term progress.
• Vital signs every 8 hrs: Although vital signs are important, this frequency does not specifically measure recovery progress. More targeted parameters such as weight trends and post-meal behaviors provide clearer indicators of improvement. Vital signs alone may remain stable despite ongoing disordered behaviors. They are supportive but not primary indicators.
• Behavior 15 min after meals: Although useful in detecting purging behaviors, this is not as critical as cardiac monitoring in the context of severe bradycardia and hypokalemia. Behavioral monitoring remains important but secondary to life-threatening risk.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. “I can remove my security band to give it to a family member”: Removing the security band compromises infant safety and facility protocols. Security bands must remain on the mother and infant to prevent abduction and ensure proper identification.
B. “I will have an identification that matches the one my baby wears.”: Matching identification bands for the mother and infant are a key safety measure to prevent mix-ups and unauthorized removal of the newborn. Understanding and adhering to this protocol demonstrates comprehension of facility security.
C. “I can take my baby to the lobby to visit family”: Infants should not be taken to unsecured areas like the lobby without proper authorization. Doing so violates security protocols and increases the risk of accidental or unauthorized removal.
D. “I will carry my baby to the nursery”: Infants are typically transported to the nursery by authorized staff or in secure bassinet transport. Parents should follow facility guidelines rather than carrying the baby independently to ensure safety and compliance with protocols.
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