The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record.
The nurse is assisting with the care of the client prior to a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
Obtain a large-bore IV catheter.
Explain to the client that transfusion reactions are not serious.
Ensure two nurses confirm the information on the blood label.
Ensure the transfusion tubing is flushed with dextrose 5% in water.
Witness the client signing consent for transfusion.
Correct Answer : A,C,E
A. Obtain a large-bore IV catheter. A large-bore IV catheter (18-gauge or larger) is necessary for blood transfusion to allow for rapid administration and reduce the risk of hemolysis. The provider has already prescribed this intervention.
B. Explain to the client that transfusion reactions are not serious. This statement is inaccurate and misleading. While many transfusion reactions are mild, some can be life-threatening, such as hemolytic reactions or anaphylaxis. The nurse should educate the client about signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction and instruct them to report any discomfort or unusual sensations immediately.
C. Ensure two nurses confirm the information on the blood label. Before administering blood, two nurses must verify the blood product against the client's identification band, medical record, and blood bank documentation to prevent transfusion errors.
D. Ensure the transfusion tubing is flushed with dextrose 5% in water. Blood products should only be administered with normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) because dextrose-containing solutions can cause red blood cell hemolysis. The nurse should ensure the IV tubing is primed with normal saline before starting the transfusion.
E. Witness the client signing consent for transfusion. Informed consent is required before administering a blood transfusion. While obtaining consent is the provider’s responsibility, the nurse can witness the signing and ensure that the client understands the procedure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Options:
- Late decelerations on fetal heart rate (FHR) – First Priority
Late decelerations are a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency, meaning the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygen. This is the most urgent concern because prolonged fetal distress can lead to hypoxia and acidosis, increasing the risk of complications such as stillbirth or emergency cesarean birth. Nursing Actions: Reposition the client to left lateral position to improve placental perfusion. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather mask. Increase IV fluids to improve maternal circulation. Stop oxytocin if it's being used, as it may be causing excessive contractions. Notify the provider immediately for further interventions, such as potential intrauterine resuscitation or emergent delivery.
- Positive Group B streptococcus (GBS) status – Second Priority
The client tested positive for GBS, a bacterial infection that can be transmitted to the newborn during birth, leading to neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis. While this is a significant concern, it is secondary to the immediate fetal distress from late decelerations. Nursing Actions: Administer IV antibiotics (penicillin G or an alternative) as ordered to prevent neonatal infection. Monitor for signs of infection in the newborn after delivery.
Rationale for Incorrect Options:
- Severe back pain rated 10/10 – Pain management is important, but fetal distress takes precedence over maternal discomfort.
- Restlessness and irritability – These could indicate maternal distress or labor progression, but they are not as urgent as fetal oxygenation.
- Increasing contraction intensity and frequency – This is expected as labor progresses but is not immediately life-threatening.
- Fatigue and emotional distress – While support is essential, it is not a priority over fetal well-being or preventing neonatal infection.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. New onset of hearing loss. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known for its ototoxic effects, which can lead to irreversible hearing loss or vestibular dysfunction. The drug damages the hair cells in the inner ear, resulting in symptoms like tinnitus, dizziness, or difficulty hearing. Clients receiving gentamicin should be closely monitored for auditory changes, as early detection can help prevent worsening damage.
B. Constipation. Gentamicin does not typically affect gastrointestinal motility, making constipation an unlikely adverse effect. It primarily causes nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, with its main targets being the kidneys and inner ear. Gastrointestinal side effects are rare and usually limited to nausea or mild discomfort rather than significant bowel irregularities.
C. Slurred speech. While aminoglycosides can cause neuromuscular blockade in rare cases, slurred speech is not a common adverse effect. More frequently, gentamicin affects the vestibular system, leading to balance disturbances or dizziness rather than impairing speech function. If neuromuscular symptoms develop, the medication should be reassessed to prevent severe complications.
D. Hypotension. Gentamicin does not directly cause hypotension as a primary side effect. Its adverse effects are more commonly associated with kidney damage, ototoxicity, and, in rare cases, neuromuscular paralysis. If a client on gentamicin experiences hypotension, other underlying causes such as sepsis or volume depletion should be considered.
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