The nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate to a laboring client whose blood pressure has increased from 110/60 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg Which nursing protocol has the highest priority?

Insert a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output

Have calcium gluconate immediately available

Provide a quiet environment with subdued lighting.

Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRS) every 4 hours.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Insert a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output: This is a reasonable intervention because magnesium sulfate can affect renal function, and monitoring urinary output is essential. However, there's a more critical intervention to consider first.

B. Have calcium gluconate immediately available: This is the highest priority. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to neuromuscular blockade, and calcium gluconate is the antidote. Having it readily available is crucial in case signs of magnesium toxicity (such as loss of deep tendon reflexes) appear.

C. Provide a quiet environment with subdued lighting: While maintaining a calm environment is generally important for clients on magnesium sulfate, it is not the highest priority in this situation.

D. Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) every 4 hours: This is an important part of monitoring for magnesium sulfate toxicity. However, the immediate availability of calcium gluconate is the highest priority in case toxicity occurs.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Notify the healthcare provider of the complaint: While it's important for the healthcare provider to be aware of any changes or symptoms the client is experiencing, the described discharge is commonly associated with normal physiological changes in pregnancy.

B. Recommend an over-the-counter yeast medication: The characteristics of the discharge described (white, thin, and watery) are not typical of a yeast infection. Using over-the-counter medications without proper assessment can lead to unnecessary treatment.

C. Inform her that this is a normal physiological change: This is the most appropriate action. Increased vaginal discharge, often described as leukorrhea, is a common and normal change during pregnancy. It's generally thin, white, and watery.

D. Prepare the client for a sterile speculum exam: A sterile speculum exam may be indicated if there are other concerning symptoms or if the discharge changes in color, consistency, or if there is associated itching or foul odor. However, based on the information provided, it's not the first-line action.

A. Place client in a negative pressure room B. Implement droplet precautions C. Encourage the mother to bottle-feed D. Give antiviral medication intravenously E. Use standard precautions

Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Place client in a negative pressure room:HIV is not an airborne disease, and clients with HIV do not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Standard precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission.

B. Implement droplet precautions:HIV is not transmitted via droplets. It is transmitted through contact with blood, certain body fluids, or perinatal exposure. Droplet precautions are not indicated.

C. Encourage the mother to bottle-feed: HIV can be transmitted through breast milk. To prevent vertical transmission postpartum, mothers with HIV are advised to avoid breastfeeding and to use formula or bottle-feed instead.

D. Give antiviral medication intravenously: Intrapartum IV zidovudine should be administered in the following situations: (a) HIV RNA >1,000 copies/mL, (b) unknown HIV RNA, (c) known or suspected lack of adherence since the last HIV RNA result, or (d) a positive expedited antigen/antibody HIV test result during labor (AI).

E. Use standard precautions:Standard precautions are the appropriate infection control measures for caring for clients with HIV. This includes wearing gloves, practicing proper hand hygiene, and avoiding contact with the client's blood and other potentially infectious fluids.

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The nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate to a laboring client whose blood pressure has increased from 110/60 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg Which nursing protocol has the highest priority?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

During a routine first trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client at 40-weeks gestation is admitted in active labor, and laboratory findings indicate that she is HIV positive. Which actions should the nurse plan to perform? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]

Explanation

Which type of anesthesia, used with a client in labor, produces a loss of sensation only to the vagina and perineum?

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