The nurse is discussing the treatment of congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprungs disease) with the caregivers of a 3-day-old newborn infant who presented with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Which statement is the best explanation of the treatment for this diagnosis?
The treatment for the disorder will be a surgical procedure
Your child will be treated with oral iron preparations to correct the anemia
Your child will receive counseling so the underlying concerns will be addressed
We will give enemas until clear and then teach you how to do these at home
The Correct Answer is A
A. The primary treatment for congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease) is surgical intervention to remove the affected segment of the bowel, allowing for normal bowel function and preventing complications such as bowel obstruction.
B. Oral iron preparations would not address the underlying condition of Hirschsprung's disease, which is related to the lack of nerve cells in the bowel.
C. While counseling may be beneficial for the caregivers regarding the diagnosis and care, it is not the primary treatment for Hirschsprung's disease.
D. While enemas may be used temporarily to relieve constipation, they are not a definitive treatment for the disease, which requires surgical correction.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The primary treatment for congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease) is surgical intervention to remove the affected segment of the bowel, allowing for normal bowel function and preventing complications such as bowel obstruction.
B. Oral iron preparations would not address the underlying condition of Hirschsprung's disease, which is related to the lack of nerve cells in the bowel.
C. While counseling may be beneficial for the caregivers regarding the diagnosis and care, it is not the primary treatment for Hirschsprung's disease.
D. While enemas may be used temporarily to relieve constipation, they are not a definitive treatment for the disease, which requires surgical correction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Weight loss may occur with acute exacerbations but is not a guaranteed effect of prednisone therapy.
B. Prednisone does help reduce inflammation but does not directly relieve abdominal cramping; this statement may reflect a misunderstanding of its action.
C. This statement indicates a clear understanding of the need for gradual tapering of prednisone to prevent withdrawal symptoms and rebound exacerbation.
D. Noticing some medication in the stool is not a common or expected effect of prednisone and may indicate a misunderstanding of how the drug works.
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