The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Provide a low-stimulation environment.
Maintain bed rest
Give antihypertensive medication
Obtain a 24-hr urine specimen
Perform a vaginal examination every 12 hr.
Monitor intake and output hourly
Administer betamethasone
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D,F,G
Rationale:
A. Provide a low-stimulation environment: The client has a severe headache, 3+ proteinuria, and elevated BP, indicating severe preeclampsia. A quiet, low-light environment reduces the risk of seizure by limiting neurologic stimulation.
B. Maintain bed rest: Bed rest in a side-lying position improves uteroplacental blood flow and helps lower blood pressure. It also decreases metabolic demand, which is critical in hypertensive pregnancies.
C. Give antihypertensive medication: The BP readings (162/112 and 166/110 mm Hg) require immediate antihypertensive therapy to prevent cerebral hemorrhage, eclampsia, or placental abruption.
D. Obtain a 24-hr urine specimen: A 24-hour urine collection for protein is the gold standard for quantifying proteinuria and confirming the diagnosis of preeclampsia. While a dipstick of 3+ is a strong indicator, the 24-hour collection provides a definitive measurement.
E. Perform a vaginal examination every 12 hr: There are no contractions or signs of labor, so regular vaginal exams are not indicated and increase the risk of infection in a preterm pregnancy.
F. Monitor intake and output hourly: Decreased renal perfusion is a complication of preeclampsia. Hourly monitoring detects oliguria early and helps assess for fluid overload or worsening renal function.
G. Administer betamethasone: At 31 weeks, betamethasone is indicated to enhance fetal lung maturity due to risk of preterm delivery from severe maternal complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A client must create a do-not-resuscitate order when completing advance directives: A DNR is a separate medical order and is not required when completing advance directives. Clients may choose to include resuscitation preferences in their directive but are not obligated to.
B. Advance directives cannot be changed once implemented: Advance directives are flexible documents that can be revised or revoked by the client at any time, as long as the client is mentally competent. This allows clients to adjust their wishes as circumstances or preferences change.
C. Assigning a health care surrogate requires legal consultation: While laws vary by state, in most cases, a legal consultation is not required. Clients can designate a surrogate by completing a form that is often available at healthcare facilities or through state-provided templates.
D. A health care surrogate makes health care decisions when the client is no longer able: A surrogate, also known as a durable power of attorney for health care, steps in only when the client loses decision-making capacity. This ensures that the client’s preferences are respected when they cannot communicate them.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Prolonged QT interval: This is not a typical sign of morphine toxicity. QT prolongation is more commonly associated with certain antipsychotics, antiarrhythmics, or methadone, not opioids like morphine.
B. Fluid retention: Morphine does not typically cause fluid retention. While it may contribute to urinary retention, generalized fluid accumulation is not characteristic of opioid toxicity and may point to other causes like heart or renal failure.
C. Bradypnea: Respiratory depression, including bradypnea, is the hallmark sign of opioid toxicity. Morphine suppresses the brainstem’s respiratory centers, reducing respiratory rate and depth, which can become life-threatening without intervention.
D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes: Opioids tend to cause central nervous system depression, which would more likely lead to diminished reflexes. Hyperactive reflexes are not associated with morphine toxicity and may suggest a different neurological issue.
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