The nurse is continuing to care for the adolescent.
Provider Prescriptions
1415:
X-ray of right leg shows open fracture of the right proximal tibia
Surgery consult
Morphine 4 mg IV every 2 hr as needed for pain.
The nurse is preparing the adolescent for the fasciotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider prior to surgery?
The adolescent's parents have concerns regarding the surgery.
The adolescent's blood pressure is 131/89 mm Hg.
The adolescent reports severe pain.
The adolescent has not voided in 4 hr.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Addressing parental concerns is crucial, especially for informed consent. If the parents are not comfortable or have unresolved questions, it could delay or prevent the surgery from proceeding.
B. While this blood pressure is slightly elevated, it is not an immediate concern that would typically prevent surgery.
C. Although severe pain is important to manage, it may not require immediate reporting unless it is unmanageable or indicates a serious problem.
D. While the lack of voiding in an immobile patient is a concern and could indicate urinary retention, it is not necessarily a finding that would prevent surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Mild pain in the hip region can be caused by various musculoskeletal issues, such as muscle strains, bursitis, or even referred pain from other areas. It is not a characteristic symptom of scoliosis.
Choice B reason
Scoliosis is characterized by an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine, which can cause uneven shoulders and pelvic heights. As the spine curves abnormally, it can lead to asymmetry in the shoulders and hips, which are noticeable during physical examination. This asymmetry is a key clinical sign that suggests the presence of scoliosis.
Choice C reason:
Limited range of motion (ROM) of the hips is more likely related to hip joint issues or musculoskeletal conditions affecting the hips, not specifically scoliosis.
Choice D reason:
Exaggerated curvature of the sacrum may indicate other spinal abnormalities or conditions affecting the lower back, but it is not typically associated with scoliosis, which primarily affects the curvature of the spine higher up in the thoracic or lumbar regions.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
A. Postpartum hemorrhage is incorrect because the client has scant lochia rubra and a firm fundus at the umbilicus, which indicate normal uterine involution and bleeding.
B. Seizures is correct because the client has signs of severe preeclampsia, such as headache, blurred vision, nausea, hyperreflexia, and clonus. These are indications of increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema, which can lead to seizures or eclampsia.
C. Hyperglycemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of diabetes mellitus or gestational diabetes in the client's history or findings.
D. Hypoxemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of respiratory distress or impaired gas exchange in the client's history or findings.
E. Infection is incorrect because the client has no signs of infection, such as fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or elevated WBC count.
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