The nurse is changing a client’s abdominal surgical dressing. Which finding warrants notification to the healthcare provider?

Yellow purulent drainage.

Pink granulation tissue.

Serosanguineous fluid.

Approximated wound edges.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Yellow purulent drainage indicates wound infection, likely from bacterial proliferation (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus) causing pus. This serious complication risks delayed healing, abscess, or sepsis, necessitating provider notification for cultures, antibiotics, or surgical intervention. Infection disrupts tissue repair, requiring urgent management to prevent systemic spread or wound dehiscence.

Choice B reason: Pink granulation tissue is normal in wound healing, reflecting angiogenesis and fibroblast activity during the proliferative phase. It indicates healthy tissue formation, not requiring notification. Purulent drainage, however, signals infection, a critical issue disrupting healing and risking complications, making it the priority finding for reporting.

Choice C reason: Serosanguineous fluid, a mix of serum and blood, is expected in early surgical wounds as capillaries heal. It does not indicate infection unless excessive. Purulent drainage is more urgent, directly suggesting bacterial infection, which can lead to serious complications like sepsis, requiring immediate provider attention.

Choice D reason: Approximated wound edges indicate proper closure and healing, reducing scarring and infection risk. This positive finding does not warrant notification. Yellow purulent drainage, conversely, signals infection, a critical complication requiring urgent intervention to prevent further tissue damage or systemic infection, making it the priority.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering a PRN narcotic at 9 cm dilation is inappropriate, as labor is in transition, nearing delivery. Narcotics risk fetal respiratory depression, crossing the placenta, especially with a stable fetal heart rate (120 beats/minute). Preparing for imminent delivery is critical, prioritizing a safe birth environment over pain relief.

Choice B reason: Asking the husband to leave does not address the client’s advanced labor (9 cm, 100% effaced, frequent contractions). His presence may provide support, and removal could increase distress. Setting up the delivery table is urgent, as birth is imminent, ensuring a sterile, safe environment for delivery.

Choice C reason: At 9 cm dilation, 100% effacement, and contractions every 2 minutes, the client is in transition, with delivery imminent. Setting up the delivery table ensures readiness for vaginal birth, providing a sterile field and equipment, addressing the physiological progression of labor for safe delivery of the newborn.

Choice D reason: Notifying the rapid response team is unnecessary, as the fetal heart rate (120 beats/minute) is normal (110–160), and screaming reflects labor pain. Delivery is imminent, making table setup the priority to facilitate safe birth, avoiding escalation to emergency response for a normal labor progression.

A. Obtain another measurement of the client’s blood pressure. B. Determine what medications the client recently received. C. Administer the antihypertensive medication as prescribed. D. Consult with the PN about the client’s condition at 0800.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Obtaining another blood pressure measurement is critical, as lethargy, pallor, and diaphoresis suggest hypotension or shock, despite the earlier 140/90 reading. This guides safe administration of antihypertensives, preventing harm, per cardiovascular assessment and medication safety protocols in nursing practice.

Choice B reason: Determining recent medications is important but secondary to assessing current blood pressure, as symptoms suggest acute instability. Blood pressure confirms hypotension risk before reviewing drugs, ensuring timely intervention, per cardiovascular assessment and patient safety standards in nursing care.

Choice C reason: Administering antihypertensives without reassessing blood pressure is unsafe, as lethargy, pallor, and diaphoresis indicate possible hypotension. Confirming blood pressure prevents exacerbating instability, per medication safety and cardiovascular monitoring protocols in nursing practice for clients with hypertension.

Choice D reason: Consulting the PN about the 0800 condition delays immediate assessment of current symptoms. Blood pressure measurement addresses acute lethargy, pallor, and diaphoresis, guiding intervention. Consultation is secondary, per prioritization and cardiovascular assessment standards in nursing care.

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The nurse is changing a client’s abdominal surgical dressing. Which finding warrants notification to the healthcare provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is contracting every 2 minutes, and her cervix is 9 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The fetal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. The client is screaming and her husband is alarmed. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

At 0800, the practical nurse (PN) reports to the registered nurse (RN) that a client’s blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. When the RN arrives to administer the 0900 antihypertensive medication, the client is oriented but lethargic, pale, and diaphoretic. Which action should the RN implement first?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Which action should the nurse implement when inserting an indwelling catheter for an uncircumcised male client?

The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed glaucoma about the condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

The nurse attaches a pulse oximeter to a client’s finger and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?