The nurse is caring for patient with severe, major burns who is receiving fluid resuscitation per protocol. Which of the following assessments indicate positive outcome?
Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr
Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L. (normal 135-145)
Blood pressure 82/54
Heart rate 124 beats per minute
The Correct Answer is A
A) Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr:
This is a positive outcome during fluid resuscitation for burn patients. Adequate urine output is a key indicator of proper renal perfusion and fluid balance. A urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is considered optimal for burn patients during the first 24-48 hours of resuscitation. It suggests that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and that the patient is responding appropriately to the fluids being administered.
B) Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L (normal 135-145):
A serum sodium level of 149 mEq/L is high and indicates hypernatremia, which is a common complication of excessive fluid resuscitation, particularly with the use of crystalloids. Hypernatremia can lead to cerebral edema, altered mental status, and other severe complications. Therefore, this finding would suggest improper fluid management and would not be considered a positive outcome.
C) Blood pressure 82/54:
A blood pressure of 82/54 is hypotensive, which is concerning in a burn patient. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, potentially leading to shock and organ failure. While low blood pressure may occur in the initial stages of resuscitation due to the rapid shifts in fluid, a sustained low blood pressure is not a positive outcome.
D) Heart rate 124 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 124 beats per minute is tachycardic and suggests that the patient is compensating for hypovolemia or inadequate circulatory volume, possibly due to insufficient fluid resuscitation. Although an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism in the initial stages of burn resuscitation, sustained tachycardia indicates ongoing volume depletion or inadequate perfusion and is not an ideal outcome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Establish IV access, apply 2L O2 via nasal cannula, and notify provider:
While establishing IV access and providing oxygen are important aspects of managing many emergencies, this patient's symptoms suggest the presence of autonomic dysreflexia rather than a primary respiratory or circulatory issue. In autonomic dysreflexia, the primary concern is to remove the noxious stimulus (such as a full bladder, bowel impaction, or tight clothing) that is causing the severe hypertension and bradycardia.
B) Assess below injury for noxious stimuli, anticipate order for hypertensive medication:
The patient’s symptoms are consistent with autonomic dysreflexia, a serious condition that occurs in individuals with a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 level. The body’s autonomic nervous system overreacts to noxious stimuli (such as a distended bladder, bowel impaction, or skin irritation) below the level of injury, leading to a severe hypertensive crisis, bradycardia, and sympathetic hyperactivity. The nurse should immediately assess for and relieve any noxious stimuli below the injury level (e.g., checking for a full bladder, constipation, or tight clothing) and anticipate an order for antihypertensive medications if the blood pressure remains elevated.
C) Administer acetaminophen and initiate intravenous (IV) fluids, anticipate order for atropine:
While pain and discomfort (which can exacerbate autonomic dysreflexia) may need to be managed, acetaminophen is not the priority in this case. The priority is addressing the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia, such as relieving noxious stimuli. Additionally, atropine is used for bradycardia, but in autonomic dysreflexia, the bradycardia is secondary to the hypertensive crisis and usually resolves once the noxious stimulus is removed.
D) Lower the head of the bed and apply a cool compress to the forehead:
Although lowering the head of the bed may help reduce intracranial pressure and applying a cool compress may provide comfort, these interventions do not address the underlying cause of the autonomic dysreflexia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Provide honest answers to the client’s questions:
Providing honest answers to the client's questions is essential in promoting comfort, especially when they have a new diagnosis of bladder cancer. Patients often experience anxiety and uncertainty when facing a new diagnosis, so being open and transparent with information can help alleviate fears and build trust.
B) Avoid eye contact with the client during care:
Avoiding eye contact with the client can contribute to feelings of isolation and discomfort. Eye contact is an important form of non-verbal communication that can help establish a rapport and show empathy. Avoiding eye contact could make the client feel rejected or neglected, which would increase their anxiety and distress.
C) Provide limited explanations of procedures needed for care:
Providing limited explanations of procedures may leave the client feeling more confused or fearful about what is happening. While it's important to avoid overwhelming the patient with too much information, clear and concise explanations about procedures and treatments are essential to reduce anxiety and help the patient feel more in control of the situation.
D) Avoid giving the client choices regarding their care:
Avoiding giving the patient choices can make them feel powerless, which can increase feelings of anxiety and frustration. Offering choices when appropriate allows the patient to feel more in control of their care, which can reduce stress and enhance their sense of autonomy.
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