The nurse is caring for patient with severe, major burns who is receiving fluid resuscitation per protocol. Which of the following assessments indicate positive outcome?

Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr

Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L. (normal 135-145)

Blood pressure 82/54

Heart rate 124 beats per minute

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr:
This is a positive outcome during fluid resuscitation for burn patients. Adequate urine output is a key indicator of proper renal perfusion and fluid balance. A urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is considered optimal for burn patients during the first 24-48 hours of resuscitation. It suggests that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and that the patient is responding appropriately to the fluids being administered.

B) Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L (normal 135-145):
A serum sodium level of 149 mEq/L is high and indicates hypernatremia, which is a common complication of excessive fluid resuscitation, particularly with the use of crystalloids. Hypernatremia can lead to cerebral edema, altered mental status, and other severe complications. Therefore, this finding would suggest improper fluid management and would not be considered a positive outcome.

C) Blood pressure 82/54:
A blood pressure of 82/54 is hypotensive, which is concerning in a burn patient. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, potentially leading to shock and organ failure. While low blood pressure may occur in the initial stages of resuscitation due to the rapid shifts in fluid, a sustained low blood pressure is not a positive outcome.

D) Heart rate 124 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 124 beats per minute is tachycardic and suggests that the patient is compensating for hypovolemia or inadequate circulatory volume, possibly due to insufficient fluid resuscitation. Although an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism in the initial stages of burn resuscitation, sustained tachycardia indicates ongoing volume depletion or inadequate perfusion and is not an ideal outcome.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Prepare for a STAT computed tomography (CT) scan:
A severe headache in a client with a suspected stroke could be indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a hemorrhagic stroke, or another serious complication like cerebral edema. The priority intervention is to perform a CT scan to determine whether the stroke is ischemic (caused by a blockage) or hemorrhagic (caused by bleeding). This is crucial because the treatment approach for these two types of strokes differs significantly. For example, hemorrhagic strokes require immediate management to control bleeding and reduce ICP, whereas ischemic strokes may be treated with thrombolytics or other interventions. Therefore, preparing for a CT scan is the most urgent action to accurately diagnose the type of stroke and guide treatment decisions.

B) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG):
While an ECG may be useful in assessing the cardiac rhythm and identifying potential arrhythmias (which can contribute to stroke risk), it is not the priority intervention in a patient with a suspected stroke and severe headache. The primary concern is to identify the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic), and a CT scan is the most direct way to do this. A 12-lead ECG can be obtained later if cardiac issues are suspected after stroke diagnosis.

C) Start an intravenous infusion of D5W at 100 mL/hr:
Starting an IV infusion of D5W (5% dextrose in water) is not an appropriate priority for a patient with a severe headache and suspected stroke. In fact, administering dextrose solutions may worsen the patient's condition in the case of a hemorrhagic stroke, as it could exacerbate cerebral edema or increase intracranial pressure. Fluid management in stroke patients should be approached cautiously, and IV fluids should be tailored to the patient's specific needs. The focus should be on imaging to determine the type of stroke before initiating interventions like IV fluids.

D) Administer a nonnarcotic analgesic:
While pain relief is important, administering a nonnarcotic analgesic (such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen) is not the priority in this situation. The patient's severe headache could be a sign of a serious complication like increased ICP or hemorrhagic stroke, which requires immediate diagnostic workup, not just pain management. Administering pain medication without understanding the underlying cause of the headache could mask symptoms and delay critical treatment.

A. take this medication as needed for pain" B. stop the medication if experience dry mouth. C. taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks. D. feel an increase in energy with this medication.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Take this medication as needed for pain:
Baclofen is a muscle relaxant typically prescribed for managing spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), rather than for pain. It should be taken as prescribed, typically on a scheduled basis rather than on an as-needed basis for pain. Misunderstanding this could lead to improper use of the medication and ineffective symptom management.

B) Stop the medication if I experience dry mouth:
Dry mouth is a potential side effect of baclofen, but it should not be the reason to stop the medication abruptly. Stopping baclofen suddenly can result in withdrawal symptoms and could potentially worsen spasticity. If dry mouth or other side effects are bothersome, the client should consult the healthcare provider for management options rather than discontinuing the medication abruptly.

C) Taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks:
This statement demonstrates a correct understanding of the proper way to discontinue baclofen. Baclofen should not be stopped suddenly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms, which can include increased spasticity, hallucinations, or seizures. A gradual tapering of the dose over a period of 1 to 2 weeks is recommended to avoid withdrawal. This is the most appropriate and safe response.

D) Feel an increase in energy with this medication:
Baclofen is not a medication designed to increase energy. Its primary purpose is to reduce muscle spasticity, not to provide a stimulant effect. If the client expects an increase in energy, this could indicate a misunderstanding of the medication's effects. Baclofen's focus is on reducing spasticity and muscle tightness, not improving energy levels.

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The nurse is caring for patient with severe, major burns who is receiving fluid resuscitation per protocol. Which of the following assessments indicate positive outcome?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client diagnosed with a stroke complains of a severe headache. Which intervention would be the nursing priority?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is providing education to the client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) about baclofen. What statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understood the education? The client states ‘’I will

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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