The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis (MG) who is post op thymectomy. The client problem is Ineffective Breathing Pattern, Which action would the nurse include in the plan of care?
Assess lung sounds and respiratory rate at least every 2 hours
Assess and document pain level once every shift
Maintain sequential compression device (SCD's) while in bed
Elevate the head of the bed ten degrees
The Correct Answer is A
A) Assess lung sounds and respiratory rate at least every 2 hours:
In a patient with Myasthenia Gravis (MG) who has undergone thymectomy, monitoring respiratory status is critical. MG is a neuromuscular disorder that can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, which may be exacerbated post-operatively. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory rate at least every 2 hours is crucial to detect early signs of respiratory compromise, including hypoventilation or atelectasis.
B) Assess and document pain level once every shift:
While pain assessment is important, especially after a thymectomy, this action alone does not directly address the immediate issue of ineffective breathing patterns. In patients with MG, respiratory complications are a priority concern. Pain management should be part of the overall plan of care, but it is secondary to monitoring respiratory function in the acute post-operative period. Pain can affect respiratory effort, but it should be managed in the context of more pressing issues like airway and breathing assessment.
C) Maintain sequential compression device (SCD's) while in bed:
While SCDs are important in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients who are immobile, they are not the most appropriate intervention for a client with ineffective breathing patterns. The primary concern in a post-thymectomy patient with MG is respiratory function.
D) Elevate the head of the bed ten degrees:
While elevating the head of the bed can help with comfort and potentially improve ventilation in some patients, it is not the most specific or effective intervention for managing ineffective breathing patterns in a patient with MG. For optimal respiratory function, it is typically more beneficial to elevate the head of the bed to a higher degree (e.g., 30-45 degrees) to enhance lung expansion, rather than just 10 degrees.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Notify the primary care provider with increased urine output
Increased urine output is not directly related to signs or symptoms of infection associated with a tunneled IV catheter, such as a Hickman catheter. While changes in urinary output might indicate renal or other systemic issues, they do not signal a local infection at the insertion site.
B) Assess daily for redness, swelling, or exudate at insertion site weekly
One of the most common complications of a tunneled IV catheter, such as a Hickman, is infection at the insertion site or along the catheter tract. The nurse should instruct the patient to monitor for signs of infection, including redness, swelling, and exudate (pus or drainage) at the insertion site. These signs suggest possible infection, and early detection is critical to preventing more serious complications like sepsis.
C) The primary care provider will monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit values
While monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit values is important for assessing overall health and blood status, it is not specifically related to monitoring for infection in a client with a tunneled IV catheter. Hemoglobin and hematocrit can provide information about anemia or dehydration but do not directly indicate an infection at the insertion site.
D) To maintain patency, the catheter should be flushed weekly using a 5ml syringe
Although flushing a tunneled IV catheter to maintain patency is important, this response does not directly address infection prevention, which is the focus of the question. Typically, a catheter should be flushed as per specific guidelines (which may include daily or weekly flushing, depending on the clinical setting).
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Ondansetron and Metoclopramide:
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, and Metoclopramide is a medication that promotes gastric emptying and is often used to treat nausea and gastroesophageal reflux. Neither of these medications are typically associated with ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is more commonly seen with medications that affect the inner ear or auditory pathways, particularly those that are used in high doses or over extended periods.
B) Aspirin and ibuprofen:
Both aspirin (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, NSAID) and ibuprofen are associated with ototoxicity, especially when used in high doses or over prolonged periods. Ototoxicity from NSAIDs can result in symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears) or even hearing loss. This occurs due to their impact on the cochlea and auditory nerve.
C) Metoprolol and Furosemide:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for managing hypertension, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions, and Furosemide is a diuretic often used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema. Neither of these drugs is typically associated with ototoxicity. However, high doses of furosemide, particularly when given rapidly or intravenously, may be associated with transient hearing loss.
D) Pantoprazole and Docusate Sodium:
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to treat gastrointestinal issues like acid reflux and ulcers. Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to treat constipation. Neither of these medications is known to cause ototoxicity. These drugs generally do not affect hearing or the auditory system.
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