The nurse is reviewing lab results for a client receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse notes the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) was previously 50 ng/ mL and is now 10 ng/mL (normal range 0-2.5 ng/mL) The nurse is aware this finding indicates the:

treatment plan will need to be changed to achieve the desired effect

cancer treatment is having, the desired effect on killing cancer cells

client is at greater risk for tumor lysis syndrome

cancer has increased size and metastatic sites

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Treatment plan will need to be changed to achieve the desired effect:
The decrease in the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL suggests that the cancer is responding to the current treatment, not that the treatment plan needs to be changed. A drop in CEA levels typically indicates a positive response to treatment, such as chemotherapy, in reducing the number or size of cancer cells.

B) Cancer treatment is having the desired effect on killing cancer cells:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker that is often elevated in individuals with certain cancers, particularly colorectal cancer. A decrease in CEA levels, as noted in this case (from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL), usually signifies that the treatment is successfully targeting the cancer and reducing the tumor burden. This drop suggests that the chemotherapy is effectively killing cancer cells and reducing the size or activity of the tumor.

C) Client is at greater risk for tumor lysis syndrome:
Tumor lysis syndrome typically occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their intracellular contents into the bloodstream, which can lead to metabolic disturbances like hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and renal failure. It is more common in aggressive hematologic cancers, such as leukemia or lymphoma, and typically presents with a rapid rise in tumor marker levels, not a decrease.

D) Cancer has increased size and metastatic sites:
An increase in tumor size or the development of metastatic sites would typically result in an increase in CEA levels, not a decrease. Since CEA levels have dropped, it is more likely that the cancer is shrinking or responding to the current treatment. This finding is more indicative of a positive response rather than disease progression.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Includes the head-to-toe anterior and posterior assessment:
While a head-to-toe physical assessment is important in trauma care, it is not the first priority. The primary assessment focuses on immediate life-threatening conditions, and the head-to-toe assessment would come after the initial stabilization of the patient's airway, breathing, circulation, and disability. A comprehensive physical examination is crucial but secondary to addressing urgent life threats.

B) Focuses on the ABCDE's to identify life-threatening problems:
The ABCDE's (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure) are the primary framework for assessing and stabilizing a trauma patient. This approach is used to identify and prioritize life-threatening problems. It ensures that the most critical issues, such as airway obstruction, respiratory failure, shock, and neurological deficits, are addressed first. This protocol is the gold standard in trauma care and is the most appropriate initial assessment in major trauma.

C) Includes the use of a standard pain scale and past medical/surgical history:
While it is important to assess pain and gather a medical history in the trauma patient, these are secondary considerations after addressing immediate threats to life. Pain management and obtaining a full history are crucial, but they are not as urgent as addressing airway, breathing, and circulation issues. These should be part of a more detailed secondary assessment once the patient is stable.

D) Consists of analyzing the results of the diagnostic testing:
Diagnostic testing, such as imaging studies and lab work, are important but are not the first priority. The primary assessment should focus on the ABCDE's. Diagnostic results are typically analyzed after the patient is stabilized, as they provide additional information but do not address immediate survival needs.

A. Fever and cardiac dysthymias B. Decline in neurological status and elevated blood pressure C. Abdominal distention and anorexia D. Positive Coombs test and low urine output

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Fever and cardiac dysrhythmias:
Fever and cardiac dysrhythmias are not the hallmark signs of an intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) following thrombolytic therapy. While fever can occur in the aftermath of a stroke, it is more commonly linked to infection or other complications. Cardiac dysrhythmias can occur in stroke patients due to autonomic dysfunction or other underlying conditions but are not specific to a hemorrhagic complication.

B) Decline in neurological status and elevated blood pressure:
A decline in neurological status (e.g., deterioration of consciousness, confusion, or focal deficits) and elevated blood pressure are classic signs of an intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) following thrombolytic therapy, especially when tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is administered. tPA works by dissolving blood clots but increases the risk of bleeding. An ICH could present with sudden worsening neurological symptoms, such as decreased level of consciousness, weakness, or sensory loss, and elevated blood pressure is a compensatory response to the hemorrhage.

C) Abdominal distention and anorexia:
Abdominal distention and anorexia are not typical indicators of an intracerebral hemorrhage following tPA therapy. These symptoms may indicate other issues, such as gastrointestinal problems or metabolic imbalances, but they are not directly related to hemorrhagic complications following thrombolytic therapy for stroke.

D) Positive Coombs test and low urine output:
A positive Coombs test indicates the presence of antibodies against red blood cells, which may suggest hemolytic anemia or an autoimmune process. Low urine output can result from a variety of conditions, including kidney dysfunction, dehydration, or shock, but these are not specific indicators of an intracerebral hemorrhage following tPA.

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The nurse is reviewing lab results for a client receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse notes the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) was previously 50 ng/ mL and is now 10 ng/mL (normal range 0-2.5 ng/mL) The nurse is aware this finding indicates the:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse understands the primary assessment for a patient following a major trauma:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for client who has had a stroke and who received tissue plasminogen activator(t-PA) 6 hours ago. The nurse identifies which of the following symptoms are indications of an intracerebral hemorrhage post thrombolytic therapy?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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