The nurse is caring for client who is diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which medical Intervention should the nurse anticipate for this client for the complications of dysrhythmias?
Insertion of a cardioverter-defibrillator
A medication regimen that includes nitrates
Immediate cardiac transplantation
Insertion of a drug eluting stent
The Correct Answer is A
A) Insertion of a cardioverter-defibrillator:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the septum, which can lead to obstruction of blood flow and contribute to the development of arrhythmias. The most concerning arrhythmias in HCM include ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, both of which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. A cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is a device that monitors the heart's rhythm and can deliver a shock to restore normal rhythm in the event of a life-threatening arrhythmia.
B) A medication regimen that includes nitrates:
Nitrates are vasodilators commonly used in the treatment of conditions like angina and heart failure. However, nitrates are generally avoided in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because they can exacerbate the condition by decreasing preload and increasing the outflow tract obstruction due to the thickened heart muscle.
C) Immediate cardiac transplantation:
Cardiac transplantation is a treatment for end-stage heart failure, typically in patients who have not responded to medical or surgical treatments. While hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can lead to heart failure, it is not the first line treatment for dysrhythmias or complications from the disease.
D) Insertion of a drug-eluting stent:
Drug-eluting stents are used to prevent restenosis (narrowing) of coronary arteries after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD). However, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is not caused by coronary artery disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Prevent the drainage by applying a tight pressure dressing:
Applying a tight pressure dressing is not the appropriate intervention in this case. The presence of fluid draining from the ear, particularly a yellow stain, could indicate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, which is a potential sign of a skull fracture or traumatic brain injury (TBI) involving the base of the skull. Applying a tight pressure dressing could potentially increase pressure or cause further injury.
B) Administer antibiotics due to increased risk of infection:
While there is an increased risk of infection with a CSF leak, antibiotics should not be administered immediately unless there is clear evidence of an infection. The priority action is to identify whether the fluid is CSF, as antibiotics alone will not address the underlying issue of a CSF leak. The nurse should allow the fluid to drain, collect a sample, and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, which may include imaging or testing for the presence of CSF.
C) Allow fluid to drain from the patient's ear onto gauze and notify the healthcare provider:
The yellow stain around the fluid dripping from the patient's ear suggests the possibility of CSF leakage, a sign of a skull base fracture. CSF leakage may occur after a traumatic brain injury and should be handled carefully. The nurse's priority action is to allow the fluid to drain onto gauze to prevent the buildup of pressure and to prevent further leakage into the ear canal. The nurse should also immediately notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
D) Hang intravenous (IV) fluids to replace fluids lost and prevent dehydration:
While IV fluids may be necessary in some cases for patients with trauma, the priority in this situation is to identify the source and nature of the drainage. If the fluid is CSF, it may be important to manage the leak appropriately rather than focusing solely on replacing fluids. The nurse should first confirm whether the fluid is CSF and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Replacing fluids may be necessary, but it is not the immediate priority.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Ondansetron and Metoclopramide:
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, and Metoclopramide is a medication that promotes gastric emptying and is often used to treat nausea and gastroesophageal reflux. Neither of these medications are typically associated with ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is more commonly seen with medications that affect the inner ear or auditory pathways, particularly those that are used in high doses or over extended periods.
B) Aspirin and ibuprofen:
Both aspirin (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, NSAID) and ibuprofen are associated with ototoxicity, especially when used in high doses or over prolonged periods. Ototoxicity from NSAIDs can result in symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears) or even hearing loss. This occurs due to their impact on the cochlea and auditory nerve.
C) Metoprolol and Furosemide:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for managing hypertension, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions, and Furosemide is a diuretic often used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema. Neither of these drugs is typically associated with ototoxicity. However, high doses of furosemide, particularly when given rapidly or intravenously, may be associated with transient hearing loss.
D) Pantoprazole and Docusate Sodium:
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to treat gastrointestinal issues like acid reflux and ulcers. Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to treat constipation. Neither of these medications is known to cause ototoxicity. These drugs generally do not affect hearing or the auditory system.
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