A nurse is assessing a client who has mitral valve stenosis Which of the following findings should the nurse except?
Clubbing of the fingers
A heart murmur
Barrel chest
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is B
A) Clubbing of the fingers
Clubbing of the fingers is typically associated with chronic hypoxia, often due to conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congenital heart defects, or chronic respiratory disorders. While mitral valve stenosis can lead to pulmonary congestion and sometimes hypoxia, clubbing is not a hallmark finding of mitral valve stenosis.
B) A heart murmur
Mitral valve stenosis is commonly characterized by a heart murmur. The stenosis (narrowing) of the mitral valve obstructs blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, leading to turbulent blood flow. This creates a characteristic diastolic murmur (a low-pitched, rumbling murmur heard best at the apex of the heart with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position).
C) Barrel chest
A barrel chest is more commonly associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), emphysema, and other conditions that cause long-term hyperinflation of the lungs. It is not a typical finding in mitral valve stenosis. The shape of the chest may change over time in patients with severe left-sided heart failure, but this is not a primary or direct consequence of mitral valve stenosis.
D) Bradycardia
Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) is not a characteristic finding of mitral valve stenosis. In fact, mitral valve stenosis can lead to increased heart rates due to reduced cardiac output and compensatory mechanisms. As the left atrium becomes increasingly distended from the obstruction, atrial fibrillation (a rapid, irregular heartbeat) is common in mitral valve stenosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr:
This is a positive outcome during fluid resuscitation for burn patients. Adequate urine output is a key indicator of proper renal perfusion and fluid balance. A urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is considered optimal for burn patients during the first 24-48 hours of resuscitation. It suggests that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and that the patient is responding appropriately to the fluids being administered.
B) Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L (normal 135-145):
A serum sodium level of 149 mEq/L is high and indicates hypernatremia, which is a common complication of excessive fluid resuscitation, particularly with the use of crystalloids. Hypernatremia can lead to cerebral edema, altered mental status, and other severe complications. Therefore, this finding would suggest improper fluid management and would not be considered a positive outcome.
C) Blood pressure 82/54:
A blood pressure of 82/54 is hypotensive, which is concerning in a burn patient. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, potentially leading to shock and organ failure. While low blood pressure may occur in the initial stages of resuscitation due to the rapid shifts in fluid, a sustained low blood pressure is not a positive outcome.
D) Heart rate 124 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 124 beats per minute is tachycardic and suggests that the patient is compensating for hypovolemia or inadequate circulatory volume, possibly due to insufficient fluid resuscitation. Although an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism in the initial stages of burn resuscitation, sustained tachycardia indicates ongoing volume depletion or inadequate perfusion and is not an ideal outcome.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Start fluid resuscitation and prepare for transport to a Burn Center:
In this case, the patient has burns that cover 27% of the total body surface area (TBSA), which falls within the moderate to severe range for burn injuries. Fluid resuscitation is critical to prevent hypovolemic shock, a common complication of severe burns due to fluid loss. The "rule of nines" or Lund-Browder chart can be used to calculate the amount of fluids needed. The patient should also be prepared for transport to a specialized burn center, where advanced care can be provided for wound management, infection prevention, and long-term rehabilitation.
B) Apply petroleum-based antibiotic cream to the affected areas:
Although topical antibiotics are an essential part of burn care to prevent infection, petroleum-based ointments are typically not recommended in the emergent phase of burn management. Applying such creams could potentially trap heat and cause further tissue damage, and petroleum-based products can be occlusive, which may interfere with wound healing.
C) Cover the burns with saline-soaked gauze and medicated ointment:
While it is important to keep burns covered to prevent infection, the use of saline-soaked gauze and medicated ointments are more appropriate after initial fluid resuscitation and stabilization of the patient. Immediate burn care focuses on preventing further injury and initiating fluid resuscitation. Saline-soaked gauze is typically used in a controlled setting, like in a burn unit, and the patient's wounds should not be excessively covered with ointment during the emergent phase.
D) Clean the wounds with soap and room temperature water:
In burn management, cleaning the wounds with soap and water can disrupt the skin's protective barrier, particularly in the emergent phase. It is important to gently clean the wounds with sterile saline or an antiseptic solution and avoid harsh cleansers. Soap and water might cause irritation, exacerbate pain, and increase the risk of infection. The focus should be on stabilizing the patient and initiating proper wound management with sterile techniques.
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