A client in the gynecology clinic asks the nurse, ‘’What are the risk factors for developing cervical cancer?’’ Which statement by the nurse is the best response?

A Rhinovirus infection can cause cancer of the cervix

Eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are risk factors

The earlier the age of sexual activity and the more partners, the greater the risk

Having yearly Pap smears will protect you from develop cancer

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) A Rhinovirus infection can cause cancer of the cervix
Rhinovirus is primarily associated with the common cold and respiratory infections, not with cervical cancer. The risk factors for cervical cancer are related to persistent infections with certain strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), especially high-risk types like HPV-16 and HPV-18, which can lead to cervical dysplasia and, eventually, cervical cancer.

B) Eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are risk factors
While diet and certain medications may influence overall health, eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are not primary risk factors for cervical cancer. Research has shown that certain hormonal contraceptives (especially long-term use) may slightly increase the risk of cervical cancer, but the most significant and well-established risk factor is HPV infection, not fat intake or birth control use.

C) The earlier the age of sexual activity and the more partners, the greater the risk
The major risk factor for cervical cancer is persistent infection with high-risk HPV. Early initiation of sexual activity and having multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is a leading cause of cervical cancer. HPV is transmitted through sexual contact, and early exposure to the virus, as well as repeated exposure to multiple partners, increases the likelihood of acquiring a high-risk strain of HPV.

D) Having yearly Pap smears will protect you from developing cancer
While Pap smears (Pap tests) are important for detecting precancerous changes (such as dysplasia) or early-stage cervical cancer, they do not prevent cancer. Pap smears can help identify abnormal cell changes that can be treated before they develop into cancer, but they do not protect against the development of cancer.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Treatment plan will need to be changed to achieve the desired effect:
The decrease in the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL suggests that the cancer is responding to the current treatment, not that the treatment plan needs to be changed. A drop in CEA levels typically indicates a positive response to treatment, such as chemotherapy, in reducing the number or size of cancer cells.

B) Cancer treatment is having the desired effect on killing cancer cells:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker that is often elevated in individuals with certain cancers, particularly colorectal cancer. A decrease in CEA levels, as noted in this case (from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL), usually signifies that the treatment is successfully targeting the cancer and reducing the tumor burden. This drop suggests that the chemotherapy is effectively killing cancer cells and reducing the size or activity of the tumor.

C) Client is at greater risk for tumor lysis syndrome:
Tumor lysis syndrome typically occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their intracellular contents into the bloodstream, which can lead to metabolic disturbances like hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and renal failure. It is more common in aggressive hematologic cancers, such as leukemia or lymphoma, and typically presents with a rapid rise in tumor marker levels, not a decrease.

D) Cancer has increased size and metastatic sites:
An increase in tumor size or the development of metastatic sites would typically result in an increase in CEA levels, not a decrease. Since CEA levels have dropped, it is more likely that the cancer is shrinking or responding to the current treatment. This finding is more indicative of a positive response rather than disease progression.

A. single color throughout B. diameter smaller than 2mm. C. has uneven or irregular borders. D. Is symmetrical in shape."

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Single color throughout:
A mole that is a single, consistent color is typically not a concern for melanoma. However, one of the key warning signs of melanoma is a mole that has multiple colors or shades, such as tan, brown, black, or even red or blue. The presence of more than one color in a mole can indicate melanoma, and the client should be advised to seek medical attention if the mole has varied colors.

B) Diameter smaller than 2mm:
A mole that is smaller than 2mm in diameter is typically not a concern for melanoma. Melanomas are often larger than 6mm in diameter, about the size of a pencil eraser, though smaller melanomas can also occur. A mole smaller than 2mm is usually considered benign, but any change in size, shape, or color, regardless of the starting size, should be evaluated.

C) Has uneven or irregular borders:
One of the primary warning signs of melanoma is the presence of irregular or uneven borders on a mole. Normal moles typically have smooth, even borders, while moles with jagged, blurred, or irregular edges are more likely to be melanoma. The client should seek medical attention if they notice any moles with irregular borders, as this could be a sign of malignancy.

D) Is symmetrical in shape:
A mole that is symmetrical (both halves are the same size and shape) is generally not a concern for melanoma. In contrast, asymmetry (when one half of the mole does not match the other half) is a key warning sign for melanoma. A mole that lacks symmetry should be evaluated by a healthcare provider.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client in the gynecology clinic asks the nurse, ‘’What are the risk factors for developing cervical cancer?’’ Which statement by the nurse is the best response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is reviewing lab results for a client receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse notes the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) was previously 50 ng/ mL and is now 10 ng/mL (normal range 0-2.5 ng/mL) The nurse is aware this finding indicates the:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is teaching a client about seeking medical attention for suspected melanoma skin cancer lesions. The client would demonstrate to the nurse an understanding of teaching by stating "1 will seek medical attention if the mole has:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome who has just returned to the nursing unit following an intracoronary stent insertion. Which action is the priority at this time?

The nurse is performing an assessment of a client admitted with left sided heart failure. Which dinical manifestation(s) would the nurse expect to identify? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

The nurse is caring for a patient with an acute head injury. Which assessment finding would first alert the nurse that the patient is developing an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP)?

What does the nurse identify as INDIRECT cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder about phenytoin sodium therapy. What information should the nurse stress regarding the client stopping the drug suddenly? The drug should not be stopped abruptly because:

A patient is to receive a bolus of Heparin 20 units/kg. The patient weighs 132 lbs. The medication is supplied as 25,000 units/250 mL. How many mL will the nurse give? (round to the nearest whole number)

Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a client who is receiving radiation therapy for lung cancer when teaching about skin care?