A client in the gynecology clinic asks the nurse, ‘’What are the risk factors for developing cervical cancer?’’ Which statement by the nurse is the best response?

A Rhinovirus infection can cause cancer of the cervix

Eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are risk factors

The earlier the age of sexual activity and the more partners, the greater the risk

Having yearly Pap smears will protect you from develop cancer

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) A Rhinovirus infection can cause cancer of the cervix
Rhinovirus is primarily associated with the common cold and respiratory infections, not with cervical cancer. The risk factors for cervical cancer are related to persistent infections with certain strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), especially high-risk types like HPV-16 and HPV-18, which can lead to cervical dysplasia and, eventually, cervical cancer.

B) Eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are risk factors
While diet and certain medications may influence overall health, eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are not primary risk factors for cervical cancer. Research has shown that certain hormonal contraceptives (especially long-term use) may slightly increase the risk of cervical cancer, but the most significant and well-established risk factor is HPV infection, not fat intake or birth control use.

C) The earlier the age of sexual activity and the more partners, the greater the risk
The major risk factor for cervical cancer is persistent infection with high-risk HPV. Early initiation of sexual activity and having multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is a leading cause of cervical cancer. HPV is transmitted through sexual contact, and early exposure to the virus, as well as repeated exposure to multiple partners, increases the likelihood of acquiring a high-risk strain of HPV.

D) Having yearly Pap smears will protect you from developing cancer
While Pap smears (Pap tests) are important for detecting precancerous changes (such as dysplasia) or early-stage cervical cancer, they do not prevent cancer. Pap smears can help identify abnormal cell changes that can be treated before they develop into cancer, but they do not protect against the development of cancer.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Establish IV access, apply 2L O2 via nasal cannula, and notify provider:
While establishing IV access and providing oxygen are important aspects of managing many emergencies, this patient's symptoms suggest the presence of autonomic dysreflexia rather than a primary respiratory or circulatory issue. In autonomic dysreflexia, the primary concern is to remove the noxious stimulus (such as a full bladder, bowel impaction, or tight clothing) that is causing the severe hypertension and bradycardia.

B) Assess below injury for noxious stimuli, anticipate order for hypertensive medication:
The patient’s symptoms are consistent with autonomic dysreflexia, a serious condition that occurs in individuals with a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 level. The body’s autonomic nervous system overreacts to noxious stimuli (such as a distended bladder, bowel impaction, or skin irritation) below the level of injury, leading to a severe hypertensive crisis, bradycardia, and sympathetic hyperactivity. The nurse should immediately assess for and relieve any noxious stimuli below the injury level (e.g., checking for a full bladder, constipation, or tight clothing) and anticipate an order for antihypertensive medications if the blood pressure remains elevated.

C) Administer acetaminophen and initiate intravenous (IV) fluids, anticipate order for atropine:
While pain and discomfort (which can exacerbate autonomic dysreflexia) may need to be managed, acetaminophen is not the priority in this case. The priority is addressing the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia, such as relieving noxious stimuli. Additionally, atropine is used for bradycardia, but in autonomic dysreflexia, the bradycardia is secondary to the hypertensive crisis and usually resolves once the noxious stimulus is removed.

D) Lower the head of the bed and apply a cool compress to the forehead:
Although lowering the head of the bed may help reduce intracranial pressure and applying a cool compress may provide comfort, these interventions do not address the underlying cause of the autonomic dysreflexia.

Correct Answer is ["12"]

Explanation

Given:

Ordered dose of Heparin: 20 units/kg

Patient weight: 132 lbs

Concentration of Heparin: 25,000 units/250 mL (100 units/mL)

Step 1: Convert patient weight from pounds to kilograms:

1 pound (lb) = 0.453592 kilograms (kg)

Patient weight in kg = 132 lbs x 0.453592 kg/lb = 59.87424 kg

Step 2: Calculate the total dose of Heparin:

Total dose (units) = Ordered dose (units/kg) x Patient weight (kg)

Total dose (units) = 20 units/kg x 59.87424 kg

Total dose (units) = 1197.4848 units

Step 3: Calculate the volume to be administered:

Volume (mL) = Total dose (units) / Concentration (units/mL)

Volume (mL) = 1197.4848 units / 100 units/mL

Volume (mL) = 11.974848 mL

Step 4: Round to the nearest whole number:

Volume (mL) ≈ 12 mL

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A client in the gynecology clinic asks the nurse, ‘’What are the risk factors for developing cervical cancer?’’ Which statement by the nurse is the best response?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse assesses the patient with a spinal cord injury at the level C-7 and finds warm, flushed skin with profuse sweating above the level of injury, and pale, cold skin below the level of injury. The patient is bradycardic, but severely hypertensive. What are the priority nursing interventions?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient is to receive a bolus of Heparin 20 units/kg. The patient weighs 132 lbs. The medication is supplied as 25,000 units/250 mL. How many mL will the nurse give? (round to the nearest whole number)

Correct Answer is ["12"]

Explanation

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