Which commonly prescribed is does the nurse identify as ototoxic?
Ondansetron and Metoclopramide
Aspirin and ibuprofen
Metoprolol and Furosemide
Pantoprazole Docusate Sodium
The Correct Answer is B
A) Ondansetron and Metoclopramide:
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, and Metoclopramide is a medication that promotes gastric emptying and is often used to treat nausea and gastroesophageal reflux. Neither of these medications are typically associated with ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is more commonly seen with medications that affect the inner ear or auditory pathways, particularly those that are used in high doses or over extended periods.
B) Aspirin and ibuprofen:
Both aspirin (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, NSAID) and ibuprofen are associated with ototoxicity, especially when used in high doses or over prolonged periods. Ototoxicity from NSAIDs can result in symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears) or even hearing loss. This occurs due to their impact on the cochlea and auditory nerve.
C) Metoprolol and Furosemide:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for managing hypertension, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions, and Furosemide is a diuretic often used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema. Neither of these drugs is typically associated with ototoxicity. However, high doses of furosemide, particularly when given rapidly or intravenously, may be associated with transient hearing loss.
D) Pantoprazole and Docusate Sodium:
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to treat gastrointestinal issues like acid reflux and ulcers. Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to treat constipation. Neither of these medications is known to cause ototoxicity. These drugs generally do not affect hearing or the auditory system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL, and new diagnosis of pneumocystis pneumonia:
A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL and the diagnosis of a severe opportunistic infection, such as pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), are major criteria for the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection, where the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP, tuberculosis, and others. The CD4 count, which measures the number of immune system cells (specifically T-helper cells), is used to monitor disease progression, with values below 200 cells/uL indicating a diagnosis of AIDS.
B) CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL and a new diagnosis of hepatitis A:
While hepatitis A is an important condition that should be managed, it is not an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. A CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL is within the normal range (500-1800 cells/uL), indicating that the immune system is not severely compromised.
C) Low grade fever with the diagnosis of influenza A:
A low-grade fever and a diagnosis of influenza A do not indicate AIDS. Influenza is a viral infection that can affect both individuals with and without HIV. It is common to experience flu-like symptoms in the early stages of HIV infection, but the presence of a fever and influenza does not confirm AIDS. A low-grade fever is also not specific to AIDS or opportunistic infections.
D) New atopic dermatitis and a white blood count of 11 million/mm³:
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is not specifically associated with HIV or AIDS. The white blood cell (WBC) count of 11 million/mm³ is elevated, but this alone does not confirm a diagnosis of AIDS. Elevated WBC counts can occur with various conditions, including infections and allergic reactions, but they are not a diagnostic feature of AIDS.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Ensure bed alarm is on when leaving patient's room:
The cerebellum plays a critical role in coordinating movement, balance, and motor control. An injury to this area can lead to impaired coordination and dysfunction in balance, making it difficult for the patient to perform the Romberg test (which evaluates balance and proprioception). Given that the patient cannot complete the Romberg test, this suggests the risk of falling or injuring themselves due to impaired balance and coordination. The priority nursing intervention is to ensure safety by using a bed alarm to alert staff if the patient attempts to get out of bed, thereby preventing falls.
B) Vary schedule to prevent memorization and boredom:
While changing the patient's routine may help with engagement, it is not the priority intervention for a patient with cerebellar injury. The primary concern in this situation is safety due to the patient's impaired balance. Addressing issues related to cognitive function or boredom may be important but comes after ensuring the patient’s physical safety.
C) Clarify misinformation and reorient when confused:
Reorientation may be necessary if the patient is confused or disoriented, but this is not the primary concern related to cerebellar injury. The patient’s balance and motor coordination are the most pressing issues. While mental clarity is important, preventing falls due to impaired motor control is the immediate priority.
D) Deep breathing and incentive spirometer education:
Deep breathing exercises and using an incentive spirometer are essential to prevent respiratory complications, particularly after surgery or immobility. However, in this case, the priority concern is the patient's safety related to impaired balance from the cerebellar injury. Respiratory interventions are important but should be addressed after ensuring that the patient is safe from falls and other immediate physical risks.
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