In educating clients about ovarian cancer the nurse emphasizes death rates for ovarian cancer are high because:

there are no obvious symptoms or problems

radiation therapy is ineffective because the ovaries are located so deep within the pelvis

the causative cancer cell is resistant to chemotherapy or radiation

ovarian cancer occurs primarily among women over age 70 that also have other complicating health problems

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A

A) There are no obvious symptoms or problems: Ovarian cancer is often referred to as the "silent killer" because it tends to develop without noticeable symptoms in the early stages. When symptoms do appear, they are often vague and nonspecific, such as bloating, abdominal discomfort, or changes in bowel habits. By the time ovarian cancer is diagnosed, it is frequently at an advanced stage, making it more difficult to treat effectively. This lack of early, clear symptoms contributes significantly to the high death rate associated with the disease.

B) Radiation therapy is ineffective because the ovaries are located so deep within the pelvis: While ovarian cancer is located deep within the pelvis, radiation therapy can still be effective for certain types of tumors. However, the primary reason for high death rates is not the location of the ovaries, but the late-stage diagnosis and difficulty in detecting the cancer early.

C) The causative cancer cell is resistant to chemotherapy or radiation: While some ovarian cancer cells may exhibit resistance to treatment, this is not the main reason for the high mortality rate. The real issue is the lack of early detection, as ovarian cancer is often diagnosed when it has already spread beyond the ovaries. Early-stage ovarian cancer may be more responsive to treatment, but by the time symptoms are noticeable, the cancer is often advanced, which limits the effectiveness of chemotherapy and radiation.

D) Ovarian cancer occurs primarily among women over age 70 that also have other complicating health problems: Although the incidence of ovarian cancer increases with age, particularly after age 60, it is not the primary factor contributing to high death rates. Many women diagnosed with ovarian cancer are relatively healthy except for the cancer itself.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Fever and cardiac dysrhythmias:
Fever and cardiac dysrhythmias are not the hallmark signs of an intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) following thrombolytic therapy. While fever can occur in the aftermath of a stroke, it is more commonly linked to infection or other complications. Cardiac dysrhythmias can occur in stroke patients due to autonomic dysfunction or other underlying conditions but are not specific to a hemorrhagic complication.

B) Decline in neurological status and elevated blood pressure:
A decline in neurological status (e.g., deterioration of consciousness, confusion, or focal deficits) and elevated blood pressure are classic signs of an intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) following thrombolytic therapy, especially when tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is administered. tPA works by dissolving blood clots but increases the risk of bleeding. An ICH could present with sudden worsening neurological symptoms, such as decreased level of consciousness, weakness, or sensory loss, and elevated blood pressure is a compensatory response to the hemorrhage.

C) Abdominal distention and anorexia:
Abdominal distention and anorexia are not typical indicators of an intracerebral hemorrhage following tPA therapy. These symptoms may indicate other issues, such as gastrointestinal problems or metabolic imbalances, but they are not directly related to hemorrhagic complications following thrombolytic therapy for stroke.

D) Positive Coombs test and low urine output:
A positive Coombs test indicates the presence of antibodies against red blood cells, which may suggest hemolytic anemia or an autoimmune process. Low urine output can result from a variety of conditions, including kidney dysfunction, dehydration, or shock, but these are not specific indicators of an intracerebral hemorrhage following tPA.

A. insert an oral airway and suction as needed. B. withhold oral fluids and food. C. apply artificial pears to protect the cornea. D. speak clearly while facing the patient.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Insert an oral airway and suction as needed:
This is generally not the first intervention for impaired glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X) function. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves play a critical role in swallowing, gag reflex, and the ability to protect the airway. While an airway might be necessary in cases of severe dysfunction, withholding food and fluids is a more immediate and specific concern when these cranial nerves are impaired, as it prevents aspiration risk.

B) Withhold oral fluids and food:
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is involved in taste and swallowing, and the vagus nerve (CN X) is crucial for the motor control of the pharynx and larynx, which are involved in swallowing and protecting the airway. Dysfunction of these nerves can lead to difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), increased risk for aspiration, and the inability to protect the airway effectively. Withholding oral fluids and food helps prevent aspiration, a major risk when these nerves are impaired, until further assessment and management can be done.

C) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea:
While it is important to protect the cornea in patients with cranial nerve dysfunction (specifically the facial nerve, CN VII), this does not directly relate to the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus (CN X) nerves. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves affect swallowing and airway protection, not eye lubrication. Applying artificial tears would not address the risk associated with impaired swallowing or airway protection.

D) Speak clearly while facing the patient:
Although speaking clearly and facing the patient might be helpful for communication, especially if the patient has difficulty with speech due to nerve impairment, it does not address the immediate and more critical concern of impaired swallowing and airway protection associated with dysfunction of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The primary concern is ensuring the patient is not at risk for aspiration while eating or drinking.

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In educating clients about ovarian cancer the nurse emphasizes death rates for ovarian cancer are high because:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for client who has had a stroke and who received tissue plasminogen activator(t-PA) 6 hours ago. The nurse identifies which of the following symptoms are indications of an intracerebral hemorrhage post thrombolytic therapy?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The neurologic assessment of a patient indicated impaired function of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 10) and the vagus nerve (C.N X). Based on these findings, the nurse plans to;

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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