The nurse is providing care for a client who has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following findings would confirm the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in this client?

CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL, (ranges 500-1800) and new diagnosis of pneumocystis pneumonia

CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL (ranges 500-1800) and a new diagnosis hepatitis A

low grade fever with the diagnosis of influenza A

New atopic dermatitis and a White Blood count 11 million/mm3

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL, and new diagnosis of pneumocystis pneumonia:
A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL and the diagnosis of a severe opportunistic infection, such as pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), are major criteria for the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection, where the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP, tuberculosis, and others. The CD4 count, which measures the number of immune system cells (specifically T-helper cells), is used to monitor disease progression, with values below 200 cells/uL indicating a diagnosis of AIDS.

B) CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL and a new diagnosis of hepatitis A:
While hepatitis A is an important condition that should be managed, it is not an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. A CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL is within the normal range (500-1800 cells/uL), indicating that the immune system is not severely compromised.

C) Low grade fever with the diagnosis of influenza A:
A low-grade fever and a diagnosis of influenza A do not indicate AIDS. Influenza is a viral infection that can affect both individuals with and without HIV. It is common to experience flu-like symptoms in the early stages of HIV infection, but the presence of a fever and influenza does not confirm AIDS. A low-grade fever is also not specific to AIDS or opportunistic infections.

D) New atopic dermatitis and a white blood count of 11 million/mm³:
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is not specifically associated with HIV or AIDS. The white blood cell (WBC) count of 11 million/mm³ is elevated, but this alone does not confirm a diagnosis of AIDS. Elevated WBC counts can occur with various conditions, including infections and allergic reactions, but they are not a diagnostic feature of AIDS.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Hypoglycemic event often develops:
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant, and while it can affect glucose metabolism, hypoglycemia is not a typical consequence of abruptly stopping the drug. This is not a primary concern when discontinuing phenytoin therapy. Hypoglycemia is more commonly associated with medications like insulin or sulfonylureas, not anticonvulsants like phenytoin.

B) Physical dependency on the drug develops over time:
Phenytoin does not cause physical dependence in the way that some other substances (e.g., alcohol, opioids) can. While the body can become used to a medication over time, and withdrawal symptoms can occur, the risk of physical dependence is not the main reason why phenytoin should not be stopped suddenly.

C) A heart block is likely to develop:
Phenytoin is known to have effects on cardiac conduction, and it can cause heart rhythm disturbances like bradycardia or a prolonged PR interval, especially with toxicity. However, the risk of a heart block developing due to abrupt discontinuation of phenytoin is not the primary concern.

D) Status epilepticus may develop:
The most serious risk of suddenly stopping phenytoin, or any anticonvulsant, is the potential for status epilepticus. Status epilepticus is a medical emergency where seizures occur continuously without recovery in between, which can be life-threatening. Abruptly discontinuing phenytoin can lead to a rebound increase in seizure activity, which can result in status epilepticus.

A. 3% Normal Saline B. Nitroprusside C. Norepinephrine D. Furosemide

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) 3% Normal Saline:
Elevated ICP can lead to a life-threatening condition known as cerebral herniation, and it often triggers the Cushing’s triad—widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations, all of which the nurse has noted. Hypertonic saline (such as 3% Normal Saline) is commonly used to manage increased ICP because it creates an osmotic gradient that draws fluid out of the brain tissue, reducing cerebral edema and lowering ICP. The goal is to reduce swelling and prevent further brain damage.

B) Nitroprusside:
Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator that is used to treat hypertension and reduce afterload in conditions like heart failure or aortic dissection. However, in this case, nitroprusside is contraindicated because it could cause a drop in systemic blood pressure, which would worsen cerebral perfusion in a patient with elevated ICP.

C) Norepinephrine:
Norepinephrine is a vasopressor used to treat hypotension by increasing systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. Although norepinephrine may be used to support blood pressure in critically ill patients, in this context of elevated ICP, the priority is to reduce ICP, not to increase blood pressure further. Increasing the systemic vascular resistance with norepinephrine could exacerbate ICP by increasing the volume of blood in the cranium

D) Furosemide:
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can reduce fluid volume and help treat conditions like edema or heart failure. While furosemide can reduce overall fluid volume, it is not typically used to manage elevated ICP in this context. Diuretics like furosemide may have a role in managing cerebral edema, but they are not as effective as hypertonic saline in rapidly reducing ICP.

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The nurse is providing care for a client who has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following findings would confirm the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in this client?

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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