A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder about phenytoin sodium therapy. What information should the nurse stress regarding the client stopping the drug suddenly? The drug should not be stopped abruptly because:

hypoglycemic event often develops

physical dependency on the drug develops over time.

a heart block is likely to develop.

status epileptic us may develop

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Hypoglycemic event often develops:
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant, and while it can affect glucose metabolism, hypoglycemia is not a typical consequence of abruptly stopping the drug. This is not a primary concern when discontinuing phenytoin therapy. Hypoglycemia is more commonly associated with medications like insulin or sulfonylureas, not anticonvulsants like phenytoin.

B) Physical dependency on the drug develops over time:
Phenytoin does not cause physical dependence in the way that some other substances (e.g., alcohol, opioids) can. While the body can become used to a medication over time, and withdrawal symptoms can occur, the risk of physical dependence is not the main reason why phenytoin should not be stopped suddenly.

C) A heart block is likely to develop:
Phenytoin is known to have effects on cardiac conduction, and it can cause heart rhythm disturbances like bradycardia or a prolonged PR interval, especially with toxicity. However, the risk of a heart block developing due to abrupt discontinuation of phenytoin is not the primary concern.

D) Status epilepticus may develop:
The most serious risk of suddenly stopping phenytoin, or any anticonvulsant, is the potential for status epilepticus. Status epilepticus is a medical emergency where seizures occur continuously without recovery in between, which can be life-threatening. Abruptly discontinuing phenytoin can lead to a rebound increase in seizure activity, which can result in status epilepticus.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Prepare for chest tube insertion:
The priority treatment for a hemothorax, which is a collection of blood in the pleural space, is to address the loss of intravascular volume and to relieve the pressure on the lungs. The insertion of a chest tube is the first step in draining the blood and restoring proper lung function and ventilation. This intervention directly addresses the cause of obstructive shock (increased pressure on the lungs and impaired cardiac output) by re-expanding the lung and preventing further complications such as respiratory distress or cardiovascular collapse.

B) Chart assessment findings:
While accurate documentation of the patient's condition is important for ongoing care and legal purposes, it is not the priority action in this situation. Immediate treatment to address the hemothorax, such as chest tube insertion, takes precedence over documentation. Charting should be done after stabilizing the patient.

C) Administer lorazepam:
Lorazepam is an anxiolytic medication that might be used for anxiety or agitation, but it is not an immediate priority in this situation. The patient's life-threatening condition (hemothorax) needs to be addressed first, and sedation or anxiety management should be considered once the patient is stabilized and receiving appropriate interventions.

D) Initiate IV fluid resuscitation:
While fluid resuscitation is essential in trauma patients with hypovolemic shock, the primary concern in hemothorax is relieving the intrathoracic pressure by draining the blood from the pleural space. IV fluid resuscitation should be initiated shortly after or simultaneously with the chest tube insertion, but addressing the hemothorax directly is the first priority in treating obstructive shock.

Correct Answer is ["2.5"]

Explanation

Ordered Dose: The doctor has prescribed Diltiazem at a rate of 2.5 mg per hour. This means the patient needs to receive 2.5 milligrams of Diltiazem every hour.

Medication Concentration: The medication is supplied as 125 mg of Diltiazem in 125 mL of fluid. This translates to a concentration of 1 mg of Diltiazem per 1 mL of solution.

Since the medication concentration is 1 mg/mL, delivering 2.5 mg of Diltiazem per hour requires infusing 2.5 mL of the solution per hour.

Therefore, the nurse should set the IV pump to deliver 2.5 mL/hr of the Diltiazem solution.

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A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder about phenytoin sodium therapy. What information should the nurse stress regarding the client stopping the drug suddenly? The drug should not be stopped abruptly because:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assisting the provider to care for trauma patient who has been diagnosed with a hemothorax. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first to treat this cause of obstructive shock?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient is to receive a continuous infusion of Diltiazem at 2.5 mg hr for Atrial fibrillation, The medication is supplied 125 mg of Diltlazem in 125 mL of IV fluid. At what rate should the nurse set the IV pump? (round to the nearest tenth)

Correct Answer is ["2.5"]

Explanation

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