The nurse is caring for an older adult client who is experiencing delirium. Which of the following should be the priority action by the nurse?
Administer diazepam.
Obtain a medical history.
Start intravenous fluids.
Raise 3 of the 4 side rails of the bed.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administer diazepam: This is not a first-line treatment for delirium and could exacerbate confusion or sedation, potentially worsening delirium.
B. Obtain a medical history: Delirium is often caused by underlying medical conditions such as infections, electrolyte imbalances, or medication side effects. Obtaining a medical history is crucial for identifying and treating the underlying cause, making it the priority action.
C. Start intravenous fluids: While IV fluids might be necessary in cases of dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, identifying the underlying cause of delirium through medical history is more urgent.
D. Raise 3 of the 4 side rails of the bed: This action may help prevent falls but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Moreover, the use of side rails can sometimes increase the risk of injury or entrapment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. Necklace: This can be a strangulation risk and should be removed from the client’s belongings.
B. Lace-up tennis shoes: The laces can be used for self-harm or strangulation and should be removed.
C. Nylon ankle socks: These are generally safe and do not pose a risk.
D. Cotton underwear: This is also considered safe and does not pose a significant risk.
E. Glass framed picture of the client's partner: The glass can be broken and used for self-harm, making it unsafe for a client with recent suicidal behavior.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The pharmacological action of Ritalin causes a decrease in appetite. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed for ADHD. One of its well-documented side effects is appetite suppression, which can lead to weight loss. This is the most accurate and direct explanation for the weight loss observed in the adolescent client.
B. Side effects of Ritalin cause nausea; therefore, caloric intake is decreased. While nausea can occur with methylphenidate, it is not the primary reason for weight loss. The main mechanism is appetite suppression rather than a direct reduction in caloric intake due to nausea. This response is less accurate than option A.
C. Increased ability to concentrate allows the client to focus on activities rather than food: While methylphenidate can improve concentration, this explanation does not directly address the physiological cause of weight loss. It is the decrease in appetite due to the drug's effects on neurotransmitters that leads to weight loss, not the increased focus on activities .
D. Hyperactivity seen in ADHD causes increased caloric expenditure: Hyperactivity itself can lead to higher caloric expenditure, but this is not directly related to the weight loss caused by methylphenidate. The primary reason for the weight loss in this case is the appetite suppression due to the medication, not increased activity .
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.