The nurse is caring for a patient with a fracture who has a Buck's traction boot in place. The boot helps decrease which condition?
Post-traumatic arthritis
Intra-articular adhesions
Extra-articular adhesions
Muscle spasm
The Correct Answer is D
A. Post-traumatic arthritis can develop after a fracture, but Buck's traction does not directly prevent or treat arthritis. Post-traumatic arthritis is a long-term complication that is managed through other interventions such as physical therapy or joint replacement if necessary.
B. Intra-articular adhesions refer to scar tissue formation inside the joint, which is not the primary focus of Buck's traction. Buck's traction is used to immobilize the limb and reduce muscle spasm, not to address intra-articular issues.
C. Extra-articular adhesions involve the formation of scar tissue outside the joint and are not specifically targeted by Buck's traction. The primary goal of the boot is to reduce muscle spasm and maintain alignment.
D. Muscle spasm is the primary condition that Buck's traction helps decrease. The boot applies a gentle, continuous pull on the limb, which helps to alleviate muscle spasms, reduce pain, and maintain proper alignment while the fracture heals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Pulmonary congestion is a hallmark of left-sided heart failure. When the left ventricle fails to pump effectively, blood backs up into the lungs, causing symptoms like shortness of breath, crackles, and fluid accumulation in the lungs.
B. Hepatomegaly is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, as the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs, leading to a backup of blood into the systemic circulation, including the liver.
C. Splenomegaly, like hepatomegaly, is typically seen in right-sided heart failure due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation.
D. Gastrointestinal congestion is more often associated with right-sided heart failure, where blood backs up into the abdominal organs, leading to symptoms like nausea, bloating, and abdominal pain.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Heparin should not be discontinued immediately after starting warfarin, as warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels. Discontinuing heparin too early could put the client at risk for clotting.
B. Warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic effect, so heparin is continued initially to provide immediate anticoagulation until the warfarin becomes effective.
C. Heparin does not increase the effects of warfarin, but both medications are used together temporarily to ensure adequate anticoagulation until warfarin reaches therapeutic levels.
D. Neither heparin nor warfarin dissolves clots. They are anticoagulants that prevent further clot formation, not thrombolytics that break down existing clots.
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