The nurse is caring for a patient who must undergo a splenectomy for treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for the splenectomy?
The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction.
The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs.
Your spleen is making too many platelets.
The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.
B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.
C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.
D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.
B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.
C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.
D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Skin color: While skin color can show signs of reactions, it is a secondary measure. Temperature changes can be more immediately significant in assessing transfusion reactions.
B. Temperature: Temperature is the priority because a fever can indicate an infection or may develop as a sign of a transfusion reaction. Monitoring baseline temperature helps quickly identify febrile reactions to the transfusion.
C. Hemoglobin level: Although important to verify, the hemoglobin level is part of the overall assessment but does not directly predict or prevent transfusion reactions.
D. Fluid intake: Fluid intake is monitored for fluid overload risk but is not as immediate in the prevention of transfusion reactions.
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