The nurse is caring for a patient who must undergo a splenectomy for treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for the splenectomy?

The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction.

The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs.

Your spleen is making too many platelets.

The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.

B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.

C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.

D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. 2 hr: While some patients may tolerate faster infusion rates, the maximum safe time is 4 hours, and there is no requirement to complete it in 2 hours.

B. 8 hr: Blood cannot be left out for 8 hours due to the increased risk of bacterial growth and contamination.

C. 6 hr: Infusing blood over 6 hours exceeds the safe time limit and poses a risk of bacterial contamination.

D. 4 hr: To reduce the risk of bacterial contamination, a unit of packed RBCs must be transfused within 4 hours of starting the infusion. This time frame ensures that the blood remains safe for the patient while minimizing exposure to room temperature.

A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.

B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.

C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.

D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.

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The nurse is caring for a patient who must undergo a splenectomy for treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for the splenectomy?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is planning care for a client who is to receive one unit of packed RBCs. Within which of the following time spans must the nurse complete the infusion?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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