The nurse is caring for a client with a history of depression who is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Sexual dysfunction
Hypotension
Hyperglycemia
Peripheral edema
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Sexual dysfunction is a common SSRI side effect, as increased serotonin inhibits sexual arousal and orgasm. Monitoring is critical, as it affects adherence in depression treatment, requiring dose adjustments or alternative therapies, making it the priority side effect to assess.
Choice B reason: Hypotension is less common with SSRIs, though orthostatic changes may occur. Sexual dysfunction is more frequent, impacting quality of life and treatment adherence in depression, making it the priority to monitor, as it directly affects patient compliance and outcomes.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia is not a typical SSRI side effect, though metabolic changes are rare. Sexual dysfunction is a prevalent issue, reducing adherence in depression treatment, making it the priority to monitor, as it significantly impacts patient satisfaction and therapy continuation.
Choice D reason: Peripheral edema is rare with SSRIs, which primarily affect serotonin pathways. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect, compromising adherence in depression management, making it the priority to monitor, as it directly influences treatment success and patient well-being.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring daily urine output assesses kidney function and fluid balance, as urine volume reflects hydration and electrolyte homeostasis. Inadequate output signals dehydration or renal issues, allowing timely intervention to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance, making it the most effective nursing action.
Choice B reason: Salt tablets after exercise replace sodium lost in sweat but are not a universal intervention for fluid and electrolyte balance. They risk hypernatremia if overused. Monitoring urine output is more comprehensive, as it directly evaluates fluid status across various clinical scenarios.
Choice C reason: Reviewing food labels for sodium content helps manage dietary intake but is indirect and patient-dependent. Urine output monitoring provides objective data on fluid and electrolyte status, enabling timely adjustments in therapy, making it a more immediate and reliable intervention.
Choice D reason: Drinking water when thirsty supports hydration but relies on subjective thirst, which may be impaired in certain conditions. Monitoring urine output objectively assesses fluid balance, detecting imbalances early, making it a more proactive and precise intervention than thirst-driven hydration.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Platelet count assesses bleeding risk but does not measure warfarin’s anticoagulant effect. Warfarin inhibits clotting factors, monitored by INR. Platelet counts are relevant for antiplatelet drugs, not anticoagulants, making INR the priority for evaluating warfarin efficacy in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B reason: INR measures warfarin’s anticoagulant effect by assessing prothrombin time, reflecting vitamin K-dependent clotting factor inhibition. In atrial fibrillation, therapeutic INR (2.0–3.0) prevents thromboembolism. Monitoring INR ensures effective anticoagulation, making it the critical lab value for warfarin therapy management.
Choice C reason: Hemoglobin level detects bleeding, a warfarin side effect, but does not assess its therapeutic effect. INR directly evaluates anticoagulation, ensuring stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin is secondary, monitored for complications, not efficacy, making INR the priority lab value.
Choice D reason: Serum potassium is unrelated to warfarin’s anticoagulant action. Electrolyte imbalances may affect cardiac rhythm in atrial fibrillation, but INR measures warfarin’s effect on clotting factors, ensuring therapeutic anticoagulation, making it the essential value to monitor for medication efficacy.
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