An adolescent boy is admitted to the emergency department following a bee sting. He arrives with a body rash and 30 minutes later becomes short of breath. The nurse obtains vital signs with a blood pressure of 90/52 mm Hg, heart rate 130 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 40 breaths/minute. The client is exhibiting clinical manifestations of which type of immune reaction?
IgE-mediated response
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
Autoimmune response
Type II hypersensitivity
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: An IgE-mediated (Type I) hypersensitivity reaction, like anaphylaxis, occurs post-bee sting, with rapid onset of rash, shortness of breath, hypotension, and tachycardia. IgE antibodies trigger mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine, causing vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and systemic symptoms, matching the client’s acute presentation.
Choice B reason: Cell-mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity involves T-cells, causing delayed reactions like contact dermatitis, not rapid systemic symptoms. Bee sting reactions are immediate, driven by IgE, not T-cells. Rash, hypotension, and respiratory distress indicate anaphylaxis, not a delayed cell-mediated response.
Choice C reason: Autoimmune responses involve self-directed antibodies, as in lupus, not triggered by external allergens like bee stings. The client’s acute rash, hypotension, and respiratory distress suggest an IgE-mediated anaphylactic reaction, not an autoimmune process, which is unrelated to acute allergen exposure.
Choice D reason: Type II hypersensitivity involves antibody-mediated cytotoxicity, as in transfusion reactions, not allergen-induced systemic symptoms. Bee sting reactions are IgE-driven, causing immediate anaphylaxis with rash and hypotension, not cytotoxic damage, making Type II inappropriate for the client’s acute presentation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Using a soft foam collar may reduce skin irritation but risks dislodging the tracheostomy tube if not secured properly. Leaving old ties in place until new ones are secure ensures tube stability, preventing accidental decannulation, which is critical in early tracheostomy care.
Choice B reason: Knots close to the tracheostomy tube increase pressure on the skin, risking irritation or necrosis. This is incorrect, as ties should allow slight movement. Maintaining old ties until new ones are secure prevents tube displacement, prioritizing airway safety during the procedure.
Choice C reason: Leaving old ties in place until new ones are secure prevents tracheostomy tube dislodgement, a life-threatening risk. This ensures continuous airway patency during tie changes, especially in fresh tracheostomies, making it the safest and most critical action to maintain tube stability.
Choice D reason: Placing knots laterally reduces irritation but does not address the risk of tube dislodgement during tie changes. Keeping old ties in place until new ones are secure is the priority, as it ensures the tube remains stable, preventing airway compromise.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Lactulose increases stool frequency and liquidity to excrete ammonia in hepatic encephalopathy. A reduction in liquid stools would indicate reduced effectiveness, as the medication’s cathartic effect is essential for ammonia removal. This is not the expected therapeutic response, as increased bowel movements are desired.
Choice B reason: Lactulose reduces blood ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy by promoting its excretion in stool, improving mental status. Ammonia accumulation causes neurological symptoms like confusion. Improved cognition and alertness are the primary therapeutic goals, making this the expected response to effective lactulose therapy.
Choice C reason: Ambulation ability is unrelated to lactulose’s mechanism in hepatic encephalopathy. While improved mental status may indirectly aid mobility, lactulose directly targets ammonia reduction, not physical function. This is not the primary therapeutic response, as the medication addresses neurological, not musculoskeletal, symptoms in this condition.
Choice D reason: Lactulose does not directly affect urine output, as it acts in the gastrointestinal tract to excrete ammonia. While hydration status may influence urine, the medication’s primary effect is on bowel movements and ammonia reduction, not renal function, making this an incorrect therapeutic expectation.
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