The nurse is caring for a client with a heart rate of 143 beats/min with atrial fibrillation. Which assessment data will the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply:
Cool, clammy skin
Respiratory rate 20
Flushing of the skin
Hypotension
Chest discomfort
Correct Answer : A,D,E
Choice A Reason:
Cool, clammy skin is a common symptom in patients with atrial fibrillation, especially when the heart rate is very high. This symptom occurs due to decreased cardiac output, which leads to poor perfusion of the skin. When the heart is beating too fast, it doesn’t have enough time to fill properly, resulting in less blood being pumped out to the body. This can cause the skin to feel cool and clammy as the body tries to compensate for the reduced blood flow.
Choice B Reason:
Respiratory rate of 20 is within the normal range for adults, which is typically 12-20 breaths per minute. While it is important to monitor respiratory rate in patients with atrial fibrillation, a rate of 20 does not indicate any immediate distress or abnormality. Therefore, this choice is not particularly relevant to the assessment of a patient with a heart rate of 143 beats/min due to atrial fibrillation.
Choice C Reason:
Flushing of the skin is not a typical symptom associated with atrial fibrillation. Flushing can occur due to various reasons such as fever, anxiety, or certain medications, but it is not directly linked to the high heart rate or the irregular rhythm seen in atrial fibrillation. Therefore, this choice is not applicable in this context.
Choice D Reason:
Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a significant concern in patients with atrial fibrillation, especially when the heart rate is very high. The rapid heart rate can lead to decreased cardiac output, as the heart does not have enough time to fill properly between beats. This can result in lower blood pressure, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, and fatigue. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial in managing patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent complications.
Choice E Reason:
Chest discomfort is a common symptom in patients with atrial fibrillation, particularly when the heart rate is very high. The irregular and rapid heart rate can cause the heart to work harder, leading to increased oxygen demand and potentially reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle. This imbalance can result in chest pain or discomfort, which is a warning sign that the heart is under stress. It is important to assess and address chest discomfort promptly to prevent further cardiac complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Nephropathy
Diabetic nephropathy is a common microvascular complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by damage to the small blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to progressive kidney disease. The condition is often identified by the presence of protein in the urine (proteinuria) and can progress to end-stage renal disease if not managed properly. The primary mechanism involves hyperglycemia-induced damage to the glomeruli, the filtering units of the kidneys. This damage results in increased permeability and eventual scarring, impairing kidney function. Effective management of blood glucose levels and blood pressure is crucial in preventing or slowing the progression of diabetic nephropathy.
Choice B: Neuropathy
Diabetic neuropathy refers to nerve damage caused by chronic high blood sugar levels. It is another significant microvascular complication of diabetes. This condition can affect various types of nerves, including sensory, motor, and autonomic nerves. Symptoms may include pain, tingling, numbness, and loss of sensation, particularly in the extremities. Diabetic neuropathy can lead to severe complications such as foot ulcers and infections, which may necessitate amputation. The pathophysiology involves hyperglycemia-induced oxidative stress and inflammation, leading to nerve damage. Tight glycemic control and regular monitoring are essential in managing diabetic neuropathy.

Choice E: Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults with diabetes. This microvascular complication involves damage to the small blood vessels in the retina, the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. There are two main types: non-proliferative and proliferative retinopathy. Non-proliferative retinopathy is characterized by microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and exudates, while proliferative retinopathy involves the growth of new, fragile blood vessels that can bleed and cause retinal detachment. The primary cause is prolonged hyperglycemia, which damages the retinal blood vessels. Regular eye examinations and good glycemic control are vital in preventing and managing diabetic retinopathy.
Choice C: Peripheral Vascular Disease
Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is not classified as a microvascular complication but rather a macrovascular one. It involves the narrowing or blockage of the blood vessels outside the heart and brain, primarily affecting the arteries in the legs. PVD is associated with atherosclerosis, where plaque builds up in the arterial walls, leading to reduced blood flow. Symptoms include leg pain, cramping, and ulcers. While PVD is a significant concern for individuals with diabetes, it is not considered a microvascular complication.
Choice D: Cerebral Vascular Disease
Cerebral vascular disease, which includes conditions such as stroke and transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), is also a macrovascular complication rather than a microvascular one. It involves the blood vessels supplying the brain and is primarily caused by atherosclerosis and hypertension. Diabetes increases the risk of cerebral vascular disease due to its association with other risk factors like high blood pressure and dyslipidemia. However, it is not classified as a microvascular complication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Documenting that the nasogastric tube is in the correct place is not appropriate in this scenario. The normal pH range for gastric contents is typically between 1.5 and 3.5. A pH of 7.35 is much higher than this range, indicating that the tube may not be in the stomach. Therefore, documenting the tube as correctly placed could lead to potential complications, such as improper feeding or medication administration.
Choice B Reason:
Notifying the health care provider is the correct action. A pH of 7.35 suggests that the nasogastric tube may be misplaced, possibly in the respiratory tract or another non-gastric location. Immediate notification of the health care provider is crucial to prevent any adverse outcomes and to take corrective measures, such as confirming placement with an X-ray or re-inserting the tube.
Choice C Reason:
Checking for placement by auscultating for air injected into the tube is not a reliable method for verifying nasogastric tube placement. While this method was traditionally used, it has been found to be inaccurate and is no longer recommended. The sound of air entering the stomach can be misleading and does not confirm correct placement.
Choice D Reason:
Retesting the pH using another strip is not the best immediate action. While it is important to ensure the accuracy of the pH reading, a pH of 7.35 is significantly outside the normal gastric range, and retesting is unlikely to yield a different result. The priority should be to notify the health care provider to address the potential misplacement of the tube.
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