The nurse is caring for a client who is on cardiac telemetry monitoring and notes that the PR interval is 0.16 seconds. Which interpretation is correct for the nurse to make?

It indicates a normal depolarization of the atria.

It provides information about atrial repolarization.

It shows an early indication of first degree heart block.

It reflects a delayed conduction through the atria.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. It indicates a normal depolarization of the atria: A PR interval of 0.12–0.20 seconds is within the normal range, representing normal conduction through the atria and AV node.

B. It provides information about atrial repolarization: Atrial repolarization is obscured by the QRS complex and not reflected in the PR interval.

C. It shows an early indication of first-degree heart block: First-degree heart block is indicated by a PR interval longer than 0.20 seconds.

D. It reflects a delayed conduction through the atria: A delay in conduction would result in a prolonged PR interval.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Removing the cast correctly at the end of the treatment period. The nurse would not instruct the patient to remove the cast. This should be done by a healthcare provider at the appropriate time.

B. Using crutches efficiently. While crutch use is important, it is secondary to monitoring for impaired circulation, which can have immediate, serious consequences.

C. Exercising joints above and below the cast, as prescribed. This may be part of rehabilitation but does not have the same urgency as monitoring circulation for complications.

D. Reporting signs of impaired circulation. The nurse should emphasize the importance of monitoring for signs of impaired circulation, such as increased pain, numbness, or color changes, which could indicate complications like compartment syndrome or poor blood flow.

A. Administration of prescribed Atropine B. A prescription for transcutaneous pacing. C. An extra dose of digoxin will be prescribed D. The next dose of digoxin will be held

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Administration of prescribed Atropine. Atropine is typically used for bradycardia related to second-degree heart block Mobitz 2 or complete block, but Mobitz 1 usually resolves on its own and does not require atropine unless symptoms develop.

B. A prescription for transcutaneous pacing. Transcutaneous pacing is typically used for more severe types of heart block, such as Mobitz 2 or third-degree block, not Mobitz 1.

C. An extra dose of digoxin will be prescribed. Giving additional digoxin would be contraindicated due to its effects on AV conduction.

D. The next dose of digoxin will be held: Second-degree heart block Mobitz 1 (also known as Wenckebach) can be worsened by digoxin, which has a vagomimetic effect that can slow conduction through the AV node. Therefore, the next dose of digoxin should be held to avoid further exacerbating the block.

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The nurse is caring for a client who is on cardiac telemetry monitoring and notes that the PR interval is 0.16 seconds. Which interpretation is correct for the nurse to make?

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