The nurse is caring for a client who has been the victim of intimate partner violence. During the interview, the nurse feels angry, embarrassed, and helpless. Which explanation best describes the cause of the nurse’s emotions?
Subconscious blame toward the client for staying in an abusive relationship.
Difficulty accepting the explanation about how the injuries actually occurred.
Experience in caring for clients who are affected by family violence is limited.
Feelings are influencing the client’s care due to a personal history of abuse.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Feeling angry, embarrassed, and helpless may indicate subconscious blame or judgment toward the client for staying in an abusive relationship. It's important for the nurse to recognize and address these feelings to provide non-judgmental and supportive care.
B. Difficulty accepting the explanation about how the injuries occurred could contribute to these feelings, but it is not the primary cause in this context.
C. Limited experience in caring for clients affected by family violence may contribute to discomfort, but it does not explain the specific emotions described.
D. While a personal history of abuse could impact the nurse's feelings, the question is asking for the immediate cause of the emotions during the current interaction with the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Conversion disorder involves the manifestation of neurological symptoms without a neurological basis. Sudden blindness with no organic pathology is indicative of a conversion disorder.
B. Complaints of headache and back pain may have organic or psychogenic causes; it does not specifically point to conversion disorder.
C. Extreme anxiety about going outside may be indicative of various anxiety disorders but does not align with the symptoms of a conversion disorder.
D. Complaints of shortness of breath and diaphoresis may have various causes, including medical conditions. It does not specifically indicate a conversion disorder.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Creatinine primarily reflects kidney function, not the metabolism of lithium in the liver.
B. Amitriptyline's effects on lithium toxicity are not directly related to creatinine levels.
However, both drugs can impact kidney function.
C. The decision to change medication based on creatinine levels involves assessing the impact on kidney function, not the combination of lithium and amitriptyline per se.
D. Lithium is excreted by the kidneys, and monitoring creatinine levels helps assess renal function, guiding the appropriate dosage and preventing lithium toxicity.
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