The nurse is caring for a client who had a thrombotic stroke in the Emergency Department. It has been less than 3 hours since the onset of symptoms. The rationale for using tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) for this client is to:
reduce the risk of blood vessel spasm.
prevent platelet aggregation.
dissolve the blood clot.
prevent infection in the brain.
The Correct Answer is C
A. While blood vessel spasms can occur after a stroke, t-PA does not directly affect them.
B. Platelet aggregation is the process by which platelets stick together to form a clot. t-PA dissolves clots, but it does not prevent their formation.
C. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is a medication that can dissolve blood clots. In the case of a thrombotic stroke, a blood clot has blocked blood flow to the brain. By dissolving the clot, t-PA can restore blood flow and limit brain damage.
D. t-PA does not have any direct effect on the risk of infection in the brain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.PSA is primarily associated with prostate health and is not an effective marker for diagnosing other male cancers. While elevated PSA levels can sometimes indicate issues related to the prostate, they are not used for diagnosing other types of cancer.
B. In fact, PSA levels are usually increased in the presence of prostate cancer. While there can be some conditions that lead to a decrease in PSA levels, cancer itself typically raises PSA levels.
C.PSA is commonly used as a screening tool for prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels may prompt further investigation, including biopsies, to determine if cancer is present. However, it’s important to note that elevated PSA can also occur due to benign conditions like prostatitis or benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
D.While PSA levels can indicate the possibility of prostate cancer, they do not provide a definitive diagnosis. A diagnosis of prostate cancer typically requires further testing, such as a prostate biopsy, to confirm the presence of cancerous cells.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
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