The nurse, caring for a client diagnosed with testicular cancer, should anticipate a medical prescription for which of the following tumor marker studies? A/An:
cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) and serum ceruloplasmin.
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
serum erythropoietin (EPO) and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
prostate specific antigen (PSA) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
The Correct Answer is B
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. This statement is false in terms of being a major risk factor for cervical cancer. While excessive alcohol consumption may have various health implications, moderate drinking, such as a glass of red wine with dinner, is not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer.
B. Infection with certain high-risk strains of HPV is a major risk factor for cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted virus that can cause changes in cervical cells, leading to dysplasia and potentially progressing to cancer if not monitored and treated.
C. In fact, regular Pap tests are a preventive measure that can help detect cervical changes early before they develop into cancer. They are not a risk factor but rather a protective factor against the progression of cervical dysplasia to cancer.
D. While sexual history can influence HPV transmission, simply being married to the same person for an extended period does not inherently increase the risk of cervical cancer.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Clopidogrel is not a pain medication; it is an antiplatelet agent used to reduce the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular events. It should be taken regularly, not on an as-needed basis.
B. Clopidogrel works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which helps prevent the formation of blood clots that can lead to strokes. This understanding indicates that the client recognizes the purpose of the medication and its importance in managing their condition after a TIA.
C. Clopidogrel is not used to treat anxiety; it is primarily focused on reducing the risk of thrombotic events. This choice shows a misunderstanding of the medication's purpose.
D. Clopidogrel does not directly control blood pressure; it is used to prevent blood clots. While blood pressure management is essential in the context of stroke prevention, clopidogrel itself does not have a role in lowering blood pressure.
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