The nurse, caring for a client diagnosed with testicular cancer, should anticipate a medical prescription for which of the following tumor marker studies? A/An:
cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) and serum ceruloplasmin.
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
serum erythropoietin (EPO) and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
prostate specific antigen (PSA) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
The Correct Answer is B
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This option is primarily aimed at promoting lung expansion and preventing atelectasis (collapse of the lung). While it's an important post-operative intervention, it does not directly reduce the risk of embolic events related to venous thromboembolism.
B. Reporting significant pain (8/10) may indicate complications such as infection or improper healing, but it does not directly relate to reducing the risk of embolic events. While managing pain is important for recovery, simply reporting it does not contribute to preventing VTEs.
C. Assessing popliteal pulses is part of a thorough circulatory assessment, but it mainly focuses on blood flow to the lower extremities rather than preventing embolic events. It can help identify existing DVT but does not actively reduce the risk of embolism.
D. This statement is true and is the best choice for decreasing the risk of an embolic event. Early ambulation promotes venous return, improves circulation, and significantly lowers the risk of DVT and pulmonary embolism in post-operative patients. Encouraging patients to get out of bed and move around as soon as they are stable is a key nursing intervention in post-operative care.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This response shows some awareness but does not indicate a sufficient understanding of the risks. Straight razors can pose a significant risk of cuts and bleeding, especially in a patient who has received t- PA, which can increase the likelihood of bleeding.
B. This response suggests a misunderstanding. Using multiple razor blades does not inherently reduce the risk of bleeding and could increase the chance of cuts or nicks. This response does not indicate an appropriate understanding of safety precautions related to t-PA.
C. This response indicates an understanding of safety precautions. Electric razors are safer for clients who are at risk of bleeding because they do not have sharp blades that can easily cause cuts. This choice minimizes the risk of injury while allowing for personal grooming.
D. While disposable razors may seem convenient, they still carry a risk of cuts and bleeding. This response does not reflect a full understanding of the precautions necessary for a client who has received t-PA, as it does not prioritize safety in the same way that using an electric razor does.
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