The nurse, caring for a client diagnosed with testicular cancer, should anticipate a medical prescription for which of the following tumor marker studies? A/An:
cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) and serum ceruloplasmin.
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
serum erythropoietin (EPO) and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
prostate specific antigen (PSA) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
The Correct Answer is B
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While it is true that some cancers of the reproductive tract can be slow-growing and may respond well to treatment, this statement is overly generalized. It does not specifically address the prognosis or treatment success associated with cervical carcinoma in situ.
B. This statement provides a statistic but may not accurately reflect the prognosis for cervical carcinoma in situ, which is typically higher than 75% when detected and treated early. This response could also imply that the survival rate for invasive cervical cancer is the same, which could lead to misunderstanding.
C. Cervical carcinoma in situ is a pre-invasive stage of cervical cancer, and when it is detected early, the treatment is usually very effective, leading to a high cure rate. This statement reassures the husband that the prognosis is good, given that early detection and treatment are key factors.
D. The term "curable" implies a much better prognosis than a mere 50% survival rate, which may refer to various cancers and does not specifically apply to cervical carcinoma in situ. This response does not provide the husband with the clarity he needs about his wife's condition.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Bacitracin is an antibiotic ointment typically used to prevent or treat bacterial infections in minor cuts and scrapes. It is not appropriate for treating a pruritic rash associated with GVHD. The rash may not be due to an infection but rather an immune response, so using bacitracin would not address the underlying issue.
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine are antihistamines that can help alleviate itching and provide relief from pruritus. Requesting a prescription for one of these medications is an appropriate response to manage the symptoms of GVHD.
C. Showering with cool water can soothe irritated skin and reduce itching. Using mild soap helps to avoid further irritation or dryness that harsher soaps can cause. This intervention supports skin care and helps manage pruritus effectively.
D. Clipping fingernails can help prevent skin damage from scratching, which could lead to secondary infections. Encouraging the use of prescribed lotions can help keep the skin moisturized and alleviate dryness, further addressing the pruritus associated with GVHD.
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