A client diagnosed with prostate cancer asks the nurse the importance of the prostate specific antigen (PSA). The nurse explains to the client that the PSA:

is effective in diagnosing other male cancers

is decreased in the presence of cancer

is a screening tool for prostate cancer

is used as a definitive diagnosis for prostate cancer

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.  PSA is primarily associated with prostate health and is not an effective marker for diagnosing other male cancers. While elevated PSA levels can sometimes indicate issues related to the prostate, they are not used for diagnosing other types of cancer.
B.   In fact, PSA levels are usually increased in the presence of prostate cancer. While there can be some conditions that lead to a decrease in PSA levels, cancer itself typically raises PSA levels.
C.  PSA is commonly used as a screening tool for prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels may prompt further investigation, including biopsies, to determine if cancer is present. However, it’s important to note that elevated PSA can also occur due to benign conditions like prostatitis or benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
D.  While PSA levels can indicate the possibility of prostate cancer, they do not provide a definitive diagnosis. A diagnosis of prostate cancer typically requires further testing, such as a prostate biopsy, to confirm the presence of cancerous cells.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.

A. Postmenopausal bleeding B. Green, malodorous vaginal discharge C. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse D. Swelling on the posterior of the vulva

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. One of the most common and concerning symptoms of uterine (endometrial) cancer is abnormal vaginal bleeding, particularly postmenopausal bleeding. Any bleeding after menopause is considered abnormal and can be an indicator of uterine cancer, warranting further investigation.
B. While a malodorous vaginal discharge can occur due to infections or other gynecological issues, it is not a primary symptom of uterine cancer. Uterine cancer more commonly presents with bleeding rather than discharge.
C. While some women with advanced uterine cancer may experience pelvic pain or pain during intercourse (dyspareunia), this symptom is not as characteristic or early in the disease process. It is more associated with conditions like endometriosis or pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. This is not a typical manifestation of uterine cancer. While vulvar swelling may be seen in cases of vulvar cancer or infections, it is not a common symptom associated with uterine cancer specifically. Symptoms related to uterine cancer primarily focus on abnormal bleeding.

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A client diagnosed with prostate cancer asks the nurse the importance of the prostate specific antigen (PSA). The nurse explains to the client that the PSA:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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