The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with premenstrual dysphoric disorder. What is the primary manifestation of this disorder?
Loss of appetite
Insomnia
Emotional lability
Anxiety
The Correct Answer is C
A. Loss of appetite can be a symptom of PMDD, but it is not the primary manifestation.
B. Insomnia can be a symptom of PMDD, but it is not the primary manifestation.
C. Emotional lability, or rapid and intense mood swings, is a primary manifestation of PMDD.
D. Anxiety can be a symptom of PMDD, but it is not the primary manifestation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, poverty of thought) as second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic known to be effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Diphenhydramine is not typically used as a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
D. Chlorpromazine is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms as second-generation antipsychotics.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Agitation can be a sign of distress, but sudden cheerfulness may be indicative of a decision to act on suicidal thoughts, as the individual may feel relieved to have made a decision.
B. Sudden cheerfulness can be a concerning sign, as it may indicate that the client has made a decision to carry out suicidal thoughts.
C. Psychomotor retardation is a symptom of depression and may not necessarily indicate imminent risk of suicide.
D. Not attending group therapy may be a sign of withdrawal or isolation, but it does not directly indicate immediate suicidal risk.
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